Morality is relative (but since that is merely my opinion, not stated as an objective fact, we here defeat the Relativist paradox.
I subscribe to the view of emotivism (Ayer/Stevenson) which basically states that to varying degrees, morality is simply a function of our own emotional reaction to something. For example, if we walked in on a man having intercourse with a frozen chicken, most of us would have an emotional reaction to that. I certainly would react with a not inconsiderable degree of disgust and fascination. It is therefore reasonable to form an immediate moral reaction to this. I, in my own right, consider that act immoral. Others may form a moral theory based upon the idea that intercourse with a chicken is wrong.
However, this situation is complicated somewhat by the fact that I have a separate philosophical, and specifically ethical theory, where logic serves to defeat this emotional reaction for the prize of emotively contributing (or more accurately, serving as inspiration) to my communicated and consistent theory. Emotivism still holds however, since this theory is based upon other notions, and critically forged thereof. Such is the case with all consistent philosophical theories, from recognised genius' like Descartes, Kant and many of the earlier post-modern philosophers, to upstarts with too much free time like myself. In my case, my main emotivism is a hatred of war and a love of liberty. I can justify that till the cows come home, but the fact that it is there in the first place is simply a reflection of my personality and character.
This is the key thing therefore. If emotivism affects our philosophy, ethics and morality, then it is necessarily different for each individual, assuming that two mental conditions in two different humans cannot be identical, something that I think we can all agree on. It stands to reason therefore, that a held morality is merely a function of the emotional state of the beholder, which varies with, and is relative to each different human. This lends itself to relativism.
However, this brings us on to the question of validity.
Most people will agree here that in order to judge something, we need to have pre-determined notions of the parameters by which we are judging. For example, in order to judge the height of two mountains, we need to have a pre-determined notion of the concept of "height" in our minds. Ignore the self-evident semantic issue here for the sake of this example. If we are to judge which version of morality is best, we need to have a version of morality ourselves, and it seems clear that we would judge relative to our own, e.g. "your morality is closest to my own, I consider yours true and a different one to be false". The problem occurs when these statements are made to be objective. In other words, I could quite easily state that my morality is an objective truth, yet my complete opposite could do the same and there is no way of demonstrating which is more true. This reduces the notion of debate to something of a sport, or a comparison between views as well as a recruiting grounds, one hopes based upon the strength of logic used (though in this day and age I fear we have become too dependent upon publicity and the like). Incidentally, I base that on the premise that there is no objective qualitative truth with which to compare and verify differing views. Since none has been found in the 3000 year history of philosophy, and ignoring the concept of God, a good case can be made for there being no objective truth, it would seem to be that relativism holds "true", in so far as I can state that relativistically
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Well it can be said that absolutes do exist - such is the case with things like mathematics and truth.
enlight: Truth is a major difficulty as stated above. Your "get out of jail free card" is a belief in God. As for mathematics, that relies on the assumption that ours in the only internally consistent logical system, yet even within that system, there is no logical barrier to the existence of another (Mod 2 being a partial example). Note that even if there were such a barrier, since it would reside only within this system it would not be a valid refutation of that notion. The concept of another internally consistent logical system is seemingly borne out by certain theories in cosmology that I shaln't go into here.
Please note that by referring to Aristotolian concepts (namely virtue theory) and Kantian moral absolutes, you are subscribing yourselves to critically flawed ideas. For example, Kant assumes that if something is qualitatively true in one context, it is true for another. Yet in that context, the premise has changed, therefore so has the conclusion! Take it further and you see that the conclusion has contradicted one of the premises!
. Most people believe that qualitative absolutes are a fallacy, yet Kant is still taken seriously, in all likelihood because of the completeness and detail of his work.
That's really the best question to ask people who claim that morality is absolute. They can never give an example that holds up to any scrutiny because morality is relative. That's the whole argument right there.
Vivisekt: Bang on.
I believe morality is absolute. Everyone has a concious that basically tells someone when they do something wrong. I supremely doubt that anyone has done something that they felt horrible about doing. Even if nobody knows about it, they still feel bad. At least I know I have.
Visage of Glory: That argument lends itself to a relativist position, since you have incited ones own conscious. Unless you claim that conscious remains the same for all humans (a difficult position to maintain in my opinion, to say the least), then the conclusion of your point would seem to be moral relativism.
You claim that because actions are neutral morality is relative. That is false. There is a clear difference between good motives and bad motives, and that is a big part of the justification of absolute morality.
enlight: The difficulty with this is that it is relative to the beholder. It may be absolute to you, but you are trying to make an objective statement with it, which is problematic.
Yes, I agree with that. There are times when absolutes are unecessary
I'm not sure the question of necessity is entirely relavent here, though I may be wrong. It seems to me that we are discussing a philosophical problem, its results are merely consequential, and influential imo.
I would say that morality is absolute.....ethics are relative
Lohr: One assumes the definition of "absolute" to mean true accross the universe, IOW, in all contexts.
History has backed up the ideal of morality as being absolute, and many of the specific examples as existing in all cultures.
BobSally: You have drawn a link between all cultures, presumably attempting to state that cultural relativism is false, but that is sufficient, not necessary. Because there are similarities between all human cultures does not preclude the possibility of their existence. There is no logical barrier, in other words, you are not inciting a necessary condition here.
Before we put American troops on the ground, we always make sure there's oil under it....