jango1985 wrote:The path this discussion took is an example of subjective viewpoints, objective is if we someday all reached agreed on a single conclusion.
No. Objectivity is not about a consensus of all, but evidence that is in principle
available to all.
Science is not immune to this simple description of objective either, it gets caught believing nonsense a bit which until it gets caught is considered objective truth.
That misunderstands the scientific method, which does not purport to PRESENT objective truth but only to SEEK it. Real empirical scientists -- i.e., not AGW climate "scientists" -- always hold their views tentatively. The exception is mathematicians, who do offer objective certainty.
Some forms of competition beat out randomly trying to stab and club each other to death and took over through being more effective at competing and when it becomes an all out death match things that made us better, smarter, faster, wealthy help us win.
We have to be clear on the difference between competition (vying to surpass rivals), conflict (pursuing interests incompatible with those of rivals), and
combat (trying to
harm rivals).
TTP wrote:No, it is an accurate idea. The difference between reproduction and evolutionary success is the difference between having children who survive to reproduce and having genes that become more predominant in the population. Two very different things.
kobe wrote:Right. Which is called reproductive success.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Reproductive_success
No, you are wrong. Reproductive success REQUIRES YOU TO REPRODUCE.
Evolutionary success does not. It only requires proliferation of your GENES, which are also present in your kin. Some people call evolutionary success "inclusive fitness," but IMO that term is also an imperfect measure of evolutionary success.
Wiki wrote:Reproductive success is defined as the passing of genes onto the next generation in a way that they too can pass on those genes. This is not solely the number of offspring produced by an individual, but also, as Ronald Fisher outlined in 1915 the probable reproductive success of those offspring, making mate choice (a form of sexual selection) an important factor in this success,[1] making biological fitness a key element in the theories of natural selection and evolution.
Which just means what I said.
But not what
I said.
GET IT??
Evolutionary success and reproductive success are one in the same.
Wrong. See above. Dying without posterity is reproductive failure, but it is not necessarily
evolutionary failure, if you have helped your kin to reproduce, making living copies of your genes more numerous. This is the key fact underlying objective morality.
The fact that you think that they are not brings to question your knowledge of evolution in general, which makes me doubt your more outlandish claims about human evolution.
No, you are just objectively wrong about what I said, and I am objectively right. You'll find that happens a lot, as long as you presume to dispute with me.
TTP wrote:False. Our moral capacity itself is indisputably a result of biological evolution, not a social construct.
Why?
Because it is present in infants too young to have been socially educated, and because it is highly genetically determined (i.e., identical twins reared apart are more similar in their moral views than fraternal twins reared together).
There are many social animals out there.
And they have their social instincts. We have morality because our behavior is too complex for instinct to handle.
What is unique about humans is our syntax, not our cooperation.
Wrong again. There are many unique things about humans, the relevant one being our moral sense: the fact that A cares about what B does to C even when there is no apparent effect on A. No other animal exhibits that predisposition in more than weak and rudimentary forms.
TTP wrote:Which is exactly why morality is not a social construct: it plays out in reproductive success, which does not always align with socially positive behavior.
I'm sorry, but we're not talking about morality, we're talking about objective morality.
Huh? We can't talk about objective morality without talking about morality. Duh.
Actual morality as practiced in society is not objective, but we have to include it in the analysis.
You are factually incorrect. In some societies, marriage by kidnap and rape has been recognized as a morally appropriate way to go about starting a family.
Yes, I know. And in most other societies it is not. Therefor not objective.
I didn't say it was objectively moral, it was YOU who claimed it was objectively
wrong.
Morality doesn't apply to anything but humans.
Therefor it is cultural, and not objective.
<sigh> Wrong
again. Arms-length economic exchange also doesn't apply to anything but humans; but as it is present in all cultures, like language, it is objectively part of our nature, and not just cultural.
Wrong. The mechanism is evolution: moral ideals that characterize the most competitive, successful societies will tend to become more predominant.
"societies"
cultural.
Wrong AGAIN. Ants also have societies, but not culture.
evolution applies to everything that reproduces.
True, but only human beings have
morality. Other social animals have instincts.
It is, because it is a physical process playing out in the arena of objective physical reality.
Yeah, so is culture. That doesn't make it objective.
Culture is objective in the sense that it exists physically. It is also evolving.
Of course. What is true in the heart of Africa may not be true in London.
That theory is literally called moral relativism.
It's a fact, not a theory; and I was not talking about what is considered moral in Africa and London, but what is
true about human behavior and relationships, and the implications thereof for evolutionary success. That's why polygyny might be objectively moral in tribal Africa, but not in London.
No, it is as varied as objective physical reality.
Variance in physical reality is not analogous to variance in objectivity.
It is not merely analogous to, but actually IS variance in objectivity.
For instance, there is variance between your beliefs and mine. That means that objectively, our beliefs vary, but that does not mean that objectively, we are both correct. It could mean that we both have a point, as in all societies that succeed do so based on some aspect of their culture that prevents them from being self-destructive, but that doesn't mean that their beliefs were objective, that doesn't mean that they were behaving morally in an objective sense, and that doesn't mean that they were behaving optimally.
True. The fact that there is an objective morality doesn't mean we know, or can easily find out, what it is. I return again to the analogy with diet: we don't know what the objectively optimum diet is, it is certainly different for different people and different circumstnaces, and we can't even say how one would go about discovering what it might be. But we nevertheless recognize that there is an objectively optimal diet, and can even say in general terms what it is probably like for almost everyone. The same goes for morality, and the epistemological constraint is similar: we could only know by trying out all the plausible candidates and seeing what happens in all circumstances, an obvious impossibility.
No it's not. It's a fact.
To clarify I meant to say "all polygamous". Obviously many practiced polygamy to some extent.
Most did, to a great extent.
Nope. Wrong. Almost all have been polygynous, and those that haven't have usually been influenced by more powerful, settled societies where polygyny is maladaptive.
Look, you are claiming that polygyny was a fundamental aspect of hunter-gathering, but that's just not true.
I don't know about "fundamental," but it was certainly far more common than monogamy.
Yeah, maybe some high status males were allowed multiple brides, but high status males by definition are the extremely small minority.
? OBVIOUSLY the
majority of men can't be polygynous as long as women don't substantially outnumber them...
I hope you're not counting nomads of the Middle East, that had the ability to make commerce with and contact with city-states for most of their recorded history. Because if so that would be a disingenuous thing to do.
Garbage. I said pre-agricultural, and that includes both nomads and hunter-gatherers.
Anyway, it doesn't take much poking around to find that my professors were indeed not lying to me to pass their PC agendas.
[url=web.missouri.edu/flinnm/pdf/WalkerEtAl2011.pdf]Evolutionary History of Hunter-Gatherer Marriage Practices[/url] wrote:As expected from previous genetic studies, the mitochondrial DNA phylogenies generated here (Figure 1) show the deepest divergences in Africa, first by San speakers (Ju/’hoansi, or !Kung San, and Khwe) and African ‘‘Pygmies’’, followed by the Hadza of Tanzania. The next clade to split off includes Australian Aborigines, hunter-gatherers on the Indian subcontinent (Dravidian language family), and the ‘‘Negritos’’ of Southeast Asia. The final clade to diverge includes several northern latitude hunter- gatherers (Inuit-Aleut, Nganasan, and Evenki). These phylogenetic trees are generally congruent with more extensive studies of global genetic variation [17–19].
The reconstruction of human marriage practices for ancestral humans show several consistent patterns using Bayesian, maximum likelihood, and parsimony methods (Table 1). The reconstruction of low levels of polygyny in early humans is straightforward because high levels of polygyny for hunter- gatherers are only found in Australian Aborigines and are mostly low elsewhere (most exceptions are some New World foragers that are not in the phylogenetic analysis). Low levels of polygyny and low reproductive skew among ancestral humans are consistent with human morphology and behavior (i.e., moderate sperm counts [20] and testicular size [21]; facultative paternal investment [22]) and the general decline in sexual dimorphism beginning at least with early Homo [23].
The existence of brideprice, brideservice, or both is the most likely ancestral state for humans according to all 3 reconstruction methodologies. Some type of exchange of goods or labor between the families of marital partners, not including token brideprice, is found in 80% of Apostolou’s [11] full sample. Brideprice/service is recorded for most hunter-gatherers in the reduced sample with the exception of the Mikea (brideprice is token only), Batek, and Andaman Islanders (Table 2). Given that brideservice and brideprice are often crucial economic components of regulated mate exchange, a deep history of these practices may in and of itself indicate a deep history of regulated marriage.
Too bad you couldn't offer any evidence against anything I said.
TTP wrote:You are incorrect. Christianity is silent on the subject (it does forbid divorce), and almost all the Old Testament prophets and patriarchs were polygynous.
Not the people that spread and practiced Christianity, though (the Romans).
Irrelevant. The Romans (like the Greeks before them) were monogamous before they became Christian.
What the customs of the Jews at the time of the events of the New Testament is immaterial. The spread of Christianity throughout Europe led to the fall of polygamy throughout Europe.
Nonsense. It was Roman conquest, Roman law and settled agriculture. Christianity was just along for the ride.
That's because certainly the various pagan groups of Europe would have practiced it for higher status males.
Polygyny was routine in pre-Roman (especially pre-agricultural) Europe, of course.
You have now.
Well, you haven't supported your theory very well.
I think I have.
Yes, but it screws up society, weakening it in the competition with rival societies, and thus becomes objectively immoral in that kind of society.
Or nah. Why nah? Because objectively nah. See, I can throw around the word meaninglessly as well.
Non-response noted.
That depends on what you mean by "resources." The true basis of polygyny is that there have never been enough good men to go around.
Sounds edgy, but means nothing.
Rubbish. It means exactly what it says. Or if you want it spelled out, the proportion of women fit to be wives and mothers is higher than the proportion of men fit to be husbands and fathers. Every woman knows this instinctively, which is why they are so ruthlessly competitive.
The general rule is that objective morality is determined by societal competitive success, which depends on societal circumstances.
That fails to meet any standard of objectivity or morality.
In your factually incorrect opinion.
But often they won't. It's clear that although the people of ancient Rome were powerless to do anything about the behavior of the early emperors, they knew damn well it was immoral, and were appalled by it.
Who are you to call it immoral?
I'm the guy who is willing to know the relevant facts.
You just said that might makes right when it comes to objective morality.
I said no such thing. I said ultimate evolutionary success makes right -- and that any other standard is by definition futile and doomed to perish.
Of course. But they are just wrong. The fact that a child might believe in leprechauns, or an adult in Allah, doesn't make those notions any less false and absurd.
Islam is an example of a society that is objectively moral by your standards. :lol:
Not at all. The jury is still out on Islam, as it is on all the rest. It may indeed turn out that of all the societies now extant, Islam will be the survivor. It is certainly single-minded enough in its intention to kill or convert (and out-reproduce) everyone else.
Your beliefs are the basis for your own delusions, not everyone else's.
Belief is irrelevant to objective fact.
ComradeTim wrote:TTP, your arguments make some sense in of themselves, however my problem is they leave me cold (and I suspect others would feel the same way). You may be right as to the fundamental basis of morality, but instinct cries out for a more personal explanation. Perhaps that too is evolutionarily derived.
His arguments sound like his pet theories based on his personal shadows on the wall in the cave. Absolutely nothing objective about the morality he claims.
Refuted above. I haven't claimed that any specific morality is objective, just that there must be such a thing, like the optimum diet.
He is making a great case for cultural relativism though.
Yes, but it's a very different kind of cultural relativism from what you mean: Darwinistic cultural relativism.