Pants-of-dog wrote:I explained the answers to all these question already. But here we go again:
You are saying a causes b causes c.
Circumstances cause potential people cause actual people.
I am saying a causes b and c.
Circumstances cause potential people and actual people.
You forgot to explain how your implications differ which was part of that question. Please explain why you feel your implications are or would be different.
Pants-of-dog wrote:They are like ghosts who have no effect on objective reality.
They are a logical concept that exists because of the reality of reproduction.
Noted. Will address below.
Pants-of-dog wrote:Both come about because if the same thing. They are correlated.
Noted. Will address below.
Pants-of-dog wrote:Yes. Exactly.
Let us keep in mind this definition, from the Wikipedia article on potential persons, that we discussed earlier: "
In philosophy and bioethics, potential (future) person (in plural, sometimes termed potential people) has been defined as an entity which is not currently a person but which is capable of developing into a person, given certain biologically and/or technically possible conditions"
1. To say that potential people are irrelevant ghosts that emerge as inconsequential objective concepts under certain circumstances, is a non-position for such potential persons are no potential persons at all as the definition implies above. The OP definition, and the accepted scholarly definition, are the same, yours is of your own device and is non-sensical. Indeed, calling potential persons "future persons" is a common alternative use of the phrase indicating the relationship between this objective logical concept and the reality that would otherwise exist. The two, according to all definitions of such, are necessarily connected. Given certain biological or technically possible conditions (notice i am using the language of the above definition), potential people
not only exist as concepts,
but are capable of developing into an actual person. You phantasms are non-sense and you counter-position can neither be substantiated or demonstrated.
2. The reason your position can be neither substantiated or demonstrated is because that potentiality exists in connection to actuality, is logically indisputable.
When, for instance, we are explaining why we see mold, we understand that it arose because it developed into such out of its logical potentiality. For instance, we would say that
"such a potential (mold) existed when certain physical conditions were present;" ie: mold spores, moisture, temperatures between such-and-such, light exposure rated-as-such-and such, protein levels at such-and-such, etc. Thus, as was stated,
one can say that under such conditions mold was potential, and with the natural course being permitted to take place, the mere potential became actual. This is not disputable. This is the reality.3. If you preemptively prevent a child that would otherwise exist, from existing, you have done that which my syllogism concludes to have been done. In truth, even if we admitted of no potential persons, I cannot imagine how you would argue otherwise. But I eagerly await for your explanation and will speculate no futher.
ingliz wrote:The Catholic Church teaches that it is the continuation of the early Christian community established by Jesus Christ.
Deus unus est et Christus unus, et una ecclesia.
So do all heretical bodies as well, such as the Monophysites and the Nestorians. Big deal. I could claim to be the strongest man alive, that does not make it so.
ingliz wrote:Primacy
It is a fact that in the first three centuries of Christianity the church in Rome, exercising its universal authority, intervened in other communities to resolve conflicts.
Pope Clement I, Bishop of Rome from 88 to his death in 101, did so in Corinth at the end of the first century.
At the end of the 2nd century, Pope Victor I, Bishop of Rome from 189 to his death in 199. threatened to excommunicate the Eastern bishops who continued to celebrate Easter on 14 Nisan, not on the following Sunday.
In the third century, Pope Cornelius, Bishop of Rome from 251 to his martyrdom in 253, convened and presided over a synod of 60 African and Eastern bishops, while his rival, Novatian, antipope between 251 and 258, claimed to have "assume[d] to himself the charge of ruling or governing the Church*".
* Cyprian, Letter XLVIII
By the bye
Saint Augustine of Hippo (b.354 d.430) was a Catholic
I believe in one, holy, catholic and apostolic Church
The Nicene Creed, or Symbol of Faith, was written by the First Ecumenical Council at Nicaea in 325, with additions (the 3rd paragraph and following) by the first Council of Constantinople in 381.
Augustine was installed as bishop of Hippo in 396.
and
Don't you find it odd, if the Catholic Church did not exist until 1563, that St. Cyprian of Carthage was referring to the Church of Christ as such in 251?
I. On The Historic Respect and Honor Afforded The Bishop of Rome and The Relation of Such to The Claim of Papal Authority.1. That the Bishop of Rome held special primacy and authority is not historically disputed, nor is this necessarily even a problem
per se. For even the Eastern church acknowledged the Bishop of Rome as "a greater among equals," this being largely due to the history of martyrdom in that city and its significance in the Empire. That such a primacy eventually led to the error of the claim of sole universal authority, is likewise hard to deny. This applies to the Great Schism of 1054 A.D., Pope Leo IX reacted to the closing of Latin churches and the denial to accept the Latin form of the Creed in the East, with excommunication (though technically executed by Humbert) which was simultaneously based in the East's excommunication of the west under order of the Patriarch of Constantinople. This dispute, had less to do with creed and more to do with Papal overreach.
The Papists erroneously believe that the Pope had the unilateral authority to validate the
filoque and force the East to conform. On this point, the East was partially correct in refusing, for regardless of the Bishop of Rome's primacy, he did not have the authority to change the doctrine of the church with out concilliar formulation or atleast clarification as to why.
In reality, the reason that the west was ultimately correct was because the Latin formation of the creed was Scripturally correct and because the western church was not adequately represented in the council of Nicaea to begin with and had always questions the Greek formulation of the Creed; which is stated explicitly by St. Augustine in his work
De Trinitate.
Thus, what defined the historicity of the Church and Her Authority, was the truth of its claims from Scripture, Apostolic Tradition, and Its Creedal Formulations and Decrees, NOT the declarations of the Pope
Ex Cathedra as is claimed by the Romish church today.
2. Once again, let it be reiterated, that as late as the 6th century, the Bishop of Rome himself was the one whodeclared that universal claims of authority
by any See's Bishop were to entertain for oneself the doctrine of anti-christ. This is based on a reading of 2 Thessalonians 2, where it states that such a declaration was the work of Satan.
Therefore, in spite of having historic "primacy," this same pope who had such, still denied universal authority as a doctrine of the church. Indeed, Pope Gregory the Great's denial of any Bishop having such was a response to the Bishop of the See of Constantinople have claimed such for himself. It was the basis of an actual rebuke.
Thus, that the Bishop of Rome had historic primacy was not even regarded by the Bishops of Rome as being a legitimate grounds for the universal authority of the Papal office, so why should the doctors of the church hold such?
Its ludicrous.
3. It is also clear, implicitly, from the forgery
Donatio Constantini, that the leaders of the Church assumed the Emperor to be the only one with universal temporal authority over the church. Indeed, it was this document that the later popes attempted to use to legitimize their claim of authority over Christian kings. Why? Because unless the temporal ruler vested such authority in the church by surrending it to the Bishop(s), such authority would otherwise be their own and they would not have to yield to Romish impositions (such as occured in the
Investiture controversy around the time of the First Crusade, and with the
Indulgences controversy that sparked the Reformation.).
Thus, even the bishops themselves knew they had no biblical or apostolic grounds for such an expansion of power and could only justify it with that forgery. Thus proving, that the ancient church that, of itself, the Bishopic had no such rights to universal power.
II. Why The Roman Catholic Church is Not The One Holy, Catholic, and Apostolic Church.1. Catholic means universal, and at one time, when the Sees were unified, all of the varying Sees participated as national churches in this One, Holy, Catholic, and Apostolic Church. Indeed, The See of Alexandria, The See of Constantinople, The See of Antioch, The See of Rome, and The See of Jerusalem were all part of this One Holy Catholic and Apostolic Church as regional participants because of their shared confession in the truth of God's Word as expressed in Holy Writ.
Because of her doctrines, the See of Antioch broke off from the true church by embracing the heresy of Nestorianism. Then, The See of Alexandrian broke off with its Monophysitism, Then the See of Constantinople with The See of Jersualem broke off with their denials of the
Filioque. The See of Rome alone remained as part of the true faith until it condemned its own councils at Trent; leaving only the churches of the Magisterial Reformation as part of the true church.
All of these Sees, including the Roman See, claim to be the One Holy, Catholic, and Apostolic Church. Obviously, they cannot all be such.
Indeed, they were all part of such at one time, but their error has shown them for who they really are. I confess the Nicene and Apostolic Creeds in the Divine Service, every Lord's day. I confess to be a son of the one Holy, Catholic, and Apostolic church every week. Saying so, does not make it so. What makes it true is if the church has held to the true teachings and councils of that Holy, Catholic, and Apostolic church. The Romish church deviated from this doctrine with its innovations, the conservative reformation did not.
2. So no, I do not find it odd that St. Cyprian claimed to be catholic, he was and I am also. But neither of us are Roman Catholic, for the Roman see fell into error in the 16th century and ceased to be a true church, but became a synagogue of Satan ruled by Anti-Christ.