Subjective and Intrinsic Values for Labor - Politics Forum.org | PoFo

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#14093749
Here's one of my points of disagreement with not only Marx but also the classical economists (e.g. Adam Smith and David Ricardo) he used as a starting point. (Actually Marx himself never used the phrase, but did rely on the concept.)

The labor theory of value is the idea that all goods have an intrinsic value determined by the amount of labor necessary to produce them. This includes not only the labor immediately applied to create the goods but also the labor necessary to create any of the capital goods used to produce them. For example, the labor necessary to produce a pair of shoes is not only the work to sew and otherwise construct the shoes themselves, but also the work needed to produce the materials and a fraction of the work necessary to create the machines used to produce the shoes and all of the materials needed to make the machines. (The fractional value being a function of how many pairs of shoes can be produced on the machine during its lifetime.)

My problem with this idea is twofold. First, it's fine as a partial estimate of the cost to produce an item, but even for that it fails to include the value of natural capital itself, which has a scarcity-based value not determined by the labor necessary to extract it; and there is no discernible relationship between the labor-based cost of production and the sale price of the item. Second, as Marx noted, the idea is pretty useless for determining the value of labor itself, insofar as labor is not required to produce labor -- is labor then without value?

The main competing theory of value is the subjective theory which in essence says that an item is worth what a customer will pay for it. (It's a little more complicated than that but that's what it comes down to.) A modification of this theory of value lets the value vary from person to person according to how important the item is in a person's subjective evaluation.

Subjective as opposed to intrinsic valuation theory has been criticized as involving circular reasoning (since it explains price by a transaction that requires price to inform it) and may also be accused of being strictly descriptive with no predictive utility; it basically asserts an identity between price and value rather than trying to define the latter by some other criterion as is done by labor theory, marginalism, power theory, etc. and predict price on the basis of it. The problem with all existing attempts at intrinsic theories of value is that they fail empirical tests, so it might actually be better to say that the price of an item is what it is, maybe develop some points about what influences prices in a market, and treat the "value" of an item as something separate from the price and not necessarily related to it.

Subjective theories of value are typically associated with free-market ideas and pro-capital economic viewpoints, but what's interesting to me is that it's possible to use a subjective value theory to observe two different "values" of labor, one treating the labor itself as a commodity and applying subjective (i.e., market) valuation to it directly, and the other deriving the value of labor from the subjective (i.e., market) values of the goods or services the labor produces.

The second of these values is taking the labor theory of value in reverse, so to speak. Instead of deriving the value of goods from the labor necessary to produce them, one derives the value of the labor from the value of those goods. The value of the goods is determined subjectively in terms of the price a customer pays for them. The interesting thing is that one may come to a conclusion not much different from Marx's regarding the intrinsic underpayment of labor inherent in capitalism by this radically different route.

Here's how that would work in specific.

First, we have a market value of labor that consists merely of the prevailing average wage for a type of work at any given time.

Second, we have a productive value of labor that consists of the market value of the goods produced by labor, less all non-labor costs of production. (In this case there's no need, as there is in applying the labor theory of value, to extract the labor necessary to produce capital goods; we may merely use their monetary costs.)

Both of these valuations of labor are ultimately subjective, the first directly and the second because it depends on the subjective valuation of the goods produced by labor.

In a capitalist economy, the market value of labor is always LESS than its productive value, as the investor depends on selling the goods for more than is paid in total production costs to generate profit. If it becomes necessary to pay as much (or more) for the labor to produce goods than the net market value of those goods, it is impossible to operate a business at a profit.

Moreover, in a capitalist economy there is an incentive to increase the differential between the market and productive value of labor whenever possible, and this leads to the shortfall of consumer demand that is an endemic problem in a capitalist economy.

So we end up in roughly the same place as Marx arrived by a different route, but through subjective valuation based entirely on market values.
#14094023
Have you read my post in the libertarianism forum about property rights?

How can labor be exploited if value is subjective? Without LTV a capitalist cannot be extracting a surplus by giving the laborer less than he's worth, the entire exploitative argument for communism and socialism begins to fall apart.
#14094125
mikema63 wrote:How can labor be exploited if value is subjective?


Because the value of labor can be established in two different subjective ways, both equally valid, those being its value on the labor market and the value of the goods it produces on the goods market. The exploitation lies in the fact that the first of those is always less than the second in a capitalist economy.

That second calculation isn't LTV; the value of the goods is established subjectively -- it's the exact reverse of the LTV in fact, because with LTV the value of the good would be established in terms of the labor to produce them, whereas here the value of the labor is established in terms of the market value of goods produced.
#14094404
If value is subjective how can it be said that the labor having value extracted when it's perfectly legitimate value is on the labor market. The good has value only in the eyes of the people buying it, they certainly don't say anything about the value of the laborer. Why must two different subjective values be connected at all?
#14094484
Malatant of Shadow wrote:Because the value of labor can be established in two different subjective ways, both equally valid, those being its value on the labor market and the value of the goods it produces on the goods market. The exploitation lies in the fact that the first of those is always less than the second in a capitalist economy.

A worker provides labor. An entrepreneur takes the labor of multiple people, various types of capital, and a business plan, and combines them to produce a product. The worker sells the labor, the company sells the goods. Two different things.

An analogy: when Intel produces processors, it just produces and sells the processors, not the stuff that other people use the processors for. If somebody buys the processors and burns them, it doesn't mean that Intel is charging too much. Similarly, if somebody buys 100 processors and runs some simple but ingenious computation on them for a year that brings him a million dollars, it doesn't mean that Intel got screwed since they only got $10k out of it while providing the most complicated and crucial component.

Same with workers and the labor that they provide.
#14094731
Lucky, that analysis introduces another word from Marxism: alienation. This is the idea that the worker is alienated from his labor and he is treated merely as another product, a marketable commodity, and not as a person.

In normal, intuitive understanding, a person does not "own" his labor; his labor is a part of him. If he sells labor for a fixed price, that's different from, say, selling his used car. In the latter case he's selling a possession for value, but in the former he is entering into a condition of servitude for a defined amount of time (per day) at a fixed price. A person cannot be separated from his labor; his labor is a part of him, and when a capitalist buys labor he is buying not things but people.

This distinction justifies performing the analysis I described for labor but not for components of manufacturing.
#14095060
You don't actually sell the abstract concept of labor though, your selling the product, which just so happens to be a thing with the actual price tags, the price of your contribution and the price it sells for.
#14095520
mikema63 wrote:You don't actually sell the abstract concept of labor though, your selling the product, which just so happens to be a thing with the actual price tags, the price of your contribution and the price it sells for.


No, that's not true. You're selling your time, in effect becoming a part-time indentured servant. ("Part-time" here means less than 24 hours a day.) You're not selling the goods you produce; those belong to the capitalist(s) hiring you from inception.
#14096097
We're talking two different ways on labor then, still when you sell time out of your day it's voluntary and you can voluntarily leave. A rather unslavelike thing to be able to do no?
#14096133
agreed.
It also seems a little unslavelike thing when you can freely negotiate terms of labour such as hours per week, start stop times, break times, wages, weekend work, etc.
Some employers don't want to negotiate, many do. Not slavelike at all to me.
#14096275
mikema63 wrote:We're talking two different ways on labor then, still when you sell time out of your day it's voluntary and you can voluntarily leave. A rather unslavelike thing to be able to do no?


Voluntarism doesn't mean anything. Work is necessary for society to survive and for the wage-laborer to live. Working for capital is inevitable since everything is privately owned, and done in conditions you have no sway over (unless workers organize to shape the labor market more in their favor, otherwise labor is atomized and trends towards subsistence wages).

Wage-slavery is a very real thing.
#14096415
I love how my wage is higher than the minimum and goes but still mysteriously trends towards subsistence. :hmm:

In communism the problem seems to have been solved by literally enslaving workers to their jobs and shooting them when they strike.

Yeah, I'd rather not.
#14096419
Conscript wrote:workers organize to shape the labor market more in their favor, otherwise labor is atomized and trends towards subsistence wages

I have a counter-example to that claim: I am not in a union, and yet my wages are way above subsistence level.
#14096438
In communism the problem seems to have been solved by literally enslaving workers to their jobs and shooting them when they strike.


In communism, there would be not government or authority to enslave or shoot. If you're talking about those ideologically attempting to build communism, things get more interesting.

Lenin wrote:Within the system of the dictatorship of the proletariat, the trade unions stand, if I may say so, between the Party and the government. In the transition to socialism the dictatorship of the proletariat is inevitable, but it is not exercised by an organisation which takes in all industrial workers...What happens is that the Party, shall we say, absorbs the vanguard of the proletariat, and this vanguard exercises the dictatorship of the proletariat. The dictatorship cannot be exercised or the functions of government performed without a foundation such as the trade unions. These functions, however, have to be performed through the medium of special institutions which are also of a new type, namely, the Soviets. What are the practical conclusions to be drawn from this peculiar situation? They are, on the one hand, that the trade unions are a link between the vanguard and the masses, and by their daily work bring conviction to the masses, the masses of the class which alone is capable of taking us from capitalism to communism. On the other hand, the trade unions are a “reservoir” of the state power. This is what the trade unions are in the period of transition from capitalism to communism. In general, this transition cannot be achieved without the leadership of that class which is the only class capitalism has trained for large-scale production and which alone is divorced from the interests of the petty proprietor. But the dictatorship of the proletariat cannot be exercised through an organisation embracing the whole of that class, because in all capitalist countries (and not only over here, in one of the most backward) the proletariat is still so divided, so degraded, and so corrupted in parts (by imperialism in some countries) that an organisation taking in the whole proletariat cannot directly exercise proletarian dictatorship. It can be exercised only by a vanguard that has absorbed the revolutionary energy of the class. The whole is like an arrangement of cogwheels. Such is the basic mechanism of the dictatorship of the proletariat, and of the essentials of transition from capitalism to communism.


In short, the workers need to have their own authority and their own means of fighting alongside even a worker's government like the early USSR.

Interestingly, Trotsky overstated the Soviet authority by saying there should be no worker's union if there's a worker's government. Lenin, in disputing him, put out the above. Trotsky worked on it and eventually came to the same conclusion Lenin did.

After Lenin's death, Stalin used this dispute against Trotsky. The joke is that it was to prove Trotsky's disregarded point that Lenin was fighting against. Stalin said they not only had a stronger worker's government than Trotsky had dared say when Lenin shut him down, but had transitioned into socialism. When Trotsky objected, they paraded this piece where Lenin says you need unions and it's not a strong enough worker's government as proof that it was a super-strong worker's government and you don't need unions.

See how that makes sense? If you don't, that's fine because it doesn't make any sense.

Regardless, all of that is olympic level consideration from masters of their fields compared to the libertarian cry of, "Commies are bad!"
#14096449
lucky wrote:I have a counter-example to that claim: I am not in a union, and yet my wages are way above subsistence level.


All wages trend towards the cost of reproduction of labor because of systemic unemployment and the need for job competition. The price of labor, like all commodities, floats around its value, which is the determined by the amount of labor-time invested in its (re)production. This is most apparent in the 'unskilled' labor markets, where workers suffer from their numbers relative to jobs and the price of labor plummets.

Unions rectify this by resisting destructive competition in favor of solidarity, and collectively demand a greater share of the value labor produces, rather than having wages left to the usual supply and demand mechanism for commodities.
#14096541
Weird how I just reviewed a few job postings for unskilled factory work in my city and the wage was 10 dollars an hour. :hmm:

TIG you can't seriously believe I'm prone to that type of thing?
#14096608
From what I can tell of the USSR you were given the choice work or starve, the claim made by communists to say laboris slavery, and unemployment was high enough to make changing your job unfeasible.

The only real difference at that point that I can see is that workers ended up shot more in the USSR.
#14096891
Wtf are you talking about mike? Of course you either work or starve, that' s the choice for every working class everywhere or you think we can easily chose not to work and still live all happy and dandy? or you are saying that USSR should have provided for people who flat out refused to work? :eh:

the claim made by communists to say laboris slavery, and unemployment was high enough to make changing your job unfeasible.


Sorry but I didn't get this part.

The only real difference at that point that I can see is that workers ended up shot more in the USSR


Wrong.
#14096913
fuser wrote:Wtf are you talking about mike? Of course you either work or starve, that' s the choice for every working class everywhere or you think we can easily chose not to work and still live all happy and dandy? or you are saying that USSR should have provided for people who flat out refused to work?


So how was the Soviet union any different from the capitalist overlords that preceded them? In both cases you had to work or you starved.

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