- 27 Jun 2020 23:22
#15103255
Perhaps some of the Marxist experts could help me understand this issue.
Looking at examples of where communism was established, except where it was imported with the help of Soviet tanks, it always happened in predominantly poor agrarian societies. The Russian Empire and China are two examples.
In Indonesia there was one of the biggest communist parties in the world until the military coup of 1965. It was again a very poor agrarian country with an impoverished industrial working class.
In Europe communist parties were popular in Italy and France throughout the Cold War.
In Britain there were communist MPs in government during the 1950s.
Does the absence of any significant communist representation in English speaking countries speak to a structural issue in terms of Marxist class analysis? For example, does this mean that working class elements in Britain and America are not as predominant as they are in continental Europe and Asia?
There is a book 'Settlers: The Mythology of the White Proletariat' the thesis of which seems to be that the white working class in America was in actual fact really a type of petit-bourgeoisie and that the whites in America were not from the labour classes.
In Scotland and in England there was a significant merchant class.
Is it possible that there is very little actual proletarian base in English speaking countries?
Looking at examples of where communism was established, except where it was imported with the help of Soviet tanks, it always happened in predominantly poor agrarian societies. The Russian Empire and China are two examples.
In Indonesia there was one of the biggest communist parties in the world until the military coup of 1965. It was again a very poor agrarian country with an impoverished industrial working class.
In Europe communist parties were popular in Italy and France throughout the Cold War.
In Britain there were communist MPs in government during the 1950s.
Does the absence of any significant communist representation in English speaking countries speak to a structural issue in terms of Marxist class analysis? For example, does this mean that working class elements in Britain and America are not as predominant as they are in continental Europe and Asia?
There is a book 'Settlers: The Mythology of the White Proletariat' the thesis of which seems to be that the white working class in America was in actual fact really a type of petit-bourgeoisie and that the whites in America were not from the labour classes.
In Scotland and in England there was a significant merchant class.
Is it possible that there is very little actual proletarian base in English speaking countries?