Time to establish cause-and-effect relationship in order to establish your assertion on the inevitibility of a fiat monetary system establishing hyperinflation while systematically eliminating any other relevent factors inherent in those systems, such as corruption or lack of meritocratic systems?
Why? I did not assert that fiat money without corruption inevitably causes hyperinflation. Clearly, corruption might be a supporting factor as might simple negligence, war and it's related infrastructure collapse, or any number of other supporting factors.
The fact remains, however, that currency based on something more "solid" than fiat is not hyperinflationary. One simply cannot hyperinflate an economy by flooding it with gold, regardless of other factors, but fiat currency has a clear and undeniable history of resulting in hyperinflation.
It's really that simple. But don't believe me.
I believe the best teacher is experience, especially for those who refuse to learn otherwise.
With a gold standard the government cannot just print money like it pleases and this ensures that the only way for government to steal peoples money is by raising taxes.
Really? Why not? Why cann't a gold backed currency be printed ad infinitum?
Because gold has limited availability. If one prints currency "ad infinitum", it is no longer "gold backed", because the amount of gold is limited.
This is simple English. Don't words work with you, or are you a lawyer?