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By AFAIK
#14819665
I was reading an article about the challenges of forming a majority gov't in the UK parliament and it said the governing party loses 2 votes because the speaker and deputy speaker aren't allowed to vote. The main opposition party loses a vote because they can nominate one deputy speaker. Does this mean that if your MP becomes the house speaker you're constituency will no longer have a voice or a vote during debates? How come people who oppose FPTP never bring this up?

Do other countries face similar set ups in their senates and assemblys, their diets and congresses?

Also I thought it was cute how the Irish republicans keep winning seats despite the fact that they refuse to take them. It's the closest you can get to a [i]'none of the above'[i] option in a liberal democracy.
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