- 09 Dec 2011 09:00
#13847991
This does not show I am wrong. Im not sure what you try to show here. Lets start from your claim that the ""real" value of a property of any type it is the value given to that property by its current owner". So at the time of the sale, the current owner believes the land to be worth $100 and the sale price is $100. So following your defintion, I find that its equivalent to what I first said. What you do is confuse the chronology. You assume Actor B to be the current owner, but at the time of the sale Actor A is the current owner. After the sale we don't know the value of the land because Actor B hasn't sold his land yet.
If you would go back to read the discussion, you will see that Eran first asked that question in response to a land value tax. A land value tax that would be imposed on current land owners. Also since it was previously stated that you need to improve land to become the owner of it, all land that has an owner must already be improved. If not not improved, then no owner, if no owner, then taxes are irrelevant. So your answer was pretty much irrelevant.
1) The basis of economics is scarcity
2) Adam smith was not the creator of economics
acvar wrote:Nunt: Your use of superlatives shows you do not understand what you are talking about. Lets give a little example that shows you are wrong.
Actor A has a plot of swamp land that he has on the market for $100. Nobody is making an offer at that price. Actor B learns by whatever means that there is a huge gold deposit under Actor A's plot. Actor B offers Actor A $100 for the plot of land and the trade takes place. According to you the value of the land including its deposit of gold was only $100. Clearly that was not so. If there is anything that can be represented as the "real" value of a property of any type it is the value given to that property by its current owner.
This does not show I am wrong. Im not sure what you try to show here. Lets start from your claim that the ""real" value of a property of any type it is the value given to that property by its current owner". So at the time of the sale, the current owner believes the land to be worth $100 and the sale price is $100. So following your defintion, I find that its equivalent to what I first said. What you do is confuse the chronology. You assume Actor B to be the current owner, but at the time of the sale Actor A is the current owner. After the sale we don't know the value of the land because Actor B hasn't sold his land yet.
How I would asses developed land is again irrelevant. Eran asked a question. I answered the question he asked then you came along and claimed my answer was wrong because it did not answer the question you wanted answered. In other words:
Eran asks what 2+2 is equal to.
I say 4.
You say I am wrong because 4 is not equal to 2+3???
But it goes even further. I was not claiming I could give you the "real" value of the property (I don't think it has a "real" value). All I was claiming is that I could give an assessment of the property for the purposes of determining taxes in a way that was easy and amicable for both the tax payer and the tax collector. There is absolutely no reason that the value for purpose of tax must be in any way related to the market value only that it is amicable to all involved.
If you would go back to read the discussion, you will see that Eran first asked that question in response to a land value tax. A land value tax that would be imposed on current land owners. Also since it was previously stated that you need to improve land to become the owner of it, all land that has an owner must already be improved. If not not improved, then no owner, if no owner, then taxes are irrelevant. So your answer was pretty much irrelevant.
You really don't understand economics do you? The very basis of economics is that actions are not value neutral. That we take actions that increase our value, and that according to the philosophy's creator that by taking these purely selfish actions we benefit those around us.
1) The basis of economics is scarcity
2) Adam smith was not the creator of economics