- 16 Mar 2012 03:11
#13918535
I asked this question last week in some random thread I've forgotten about, but I'll put it up again to the brain trust of libertarians and non-libertarian trolls.
Let's assume you have a total dream libertarian state. The government doesn't do shit except protect personal property rights. Let's also assume that you have a city like, say, Los Angeles, which basically has 2 main mountain passes to reach the outside world, or San Francisco, which, not counting the government-built bridges, obviously only has one way out.
Let's also assume that one rich guy/group owns the property of the mountain passes or the southern edge of SF (or has built a bridge). These are routes that the city relies heavily upon traffic and trade through these areas. Let's also assume that the rich owner(s) are assholes and decide to extort the fuck out of anyone wanting to travel.
How is the tyranny of this owner different from the tyranny of government ownership? Does the minimized government have the ability to protect the property rights of the people living in the choked-off cities?
Let's assume you have a total dream libertarian state. The government doesn't do shit except protect personal property rights. Let's also assume that you have a city like, say, Los Angeles, which basically has 2 main mountain passes to reach the outside world, or San Francisco, which, not counting the government-built bridges, obviously only has one way out.
Let's also assume that one rich guy/group owns the property of the mountain passes or the southern edge of SF (or has built a bridge). These are routes that the city relies heavily upon traffic and trade through these areas. Let's also assume that the rich owner(s) are assholes and decide to extort the fuck out of anyone wanting to travel.
How is the tyranny of this owner different from the tyranny of government ownership? Does the minimized government have the ability to protect the property rights of the people living in the choked-off cities?
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