Nice deflection of topic.
It isn't, the Vikings had the capability to stay seaworthy for a very long time, the coast of Greenland, Iceland and Newfound land from Norway were each no more than 5 days travel from one another, easily done during summer when the weather wasn't bad. Compare that with the three months it took Columbus to cross the Atlantic from
Spain.
That is not my logic since going to the moon on a sea ship is impossible while going into the Indian Ocean resupplying and proceding to the Pacific ocean and then to South America is very much possible. Falx you are smarter then this type of kindergarden debate style you are using.
Because as we all know the Indians at the time were peace loving people. The problem with that is the distances involved and the way the Egyptians practised seafaring, they never left the coast from their sight. The way to go from Egypt to Polynesia is by the Red Sea, Arabia, Persia, India, Burma and Malaya, only then would the real travel beguin. This is a voyage that took the Portuguese in the 15th century over 6 months to complete. As far as anything goes it was impossible to travel from Egypt to America by Polynesia in ancient times.
Really did they have planes?
About as many as they had ocean going ships.
So how did a South American product get to Egypt? I guess they used the teleporter. ...[How is that even addressing how a Product got to Egypt from South America when you said that niether civilazation had the means to come into contact with one another. ...
Please explain that more.
Its quite simple really, the products move independent of the culture that produced them. If you think about it for a second do you get your BMW's today because Germans have a colony in Israel that they send their products to or because someone else buys it, resells it, and so on until it finally reaches you. The same was true for ancient trade. It is possible and, indeed likely, that the most western Polynesia traded with the Americas, it would be extremely likely that those goods were then passed on along the trade routes of antiquity all the way to Egypt as extreme luxury goods. It does not suggest that the Egyptians got to America any more than Silk suggesting the Chinese had colonies in Europe. Both of which goods were situated half a world away and occurred no where else.
Try this link:
I am linking you to a peer reviewed paper on the subject, you are linking me to the discovery channel which cites papers that mine has refuted. Use logic and figure out which source is superior.