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By Tainari88
#13738080
That is because unlike other cultures, the Greek one is linguo-centric and does not take kindly any sort of lingual shift or change.


Noemon I would say it was more due to having a very literate culture for a lot longer and being very faithful to tradition in many ways. And also not being wiped out or assimilated completely by other groups. Withstanding the pressure is what kills cultures. Many cultures are under pressure to give up their language, their tradtions and their ways and if they do they will live a 'better' life. That usually ends in complete disaster. Once you give up your language, your cultural heritage and your traditions you are very vulnerable to adopting another dominant cultures ways and forgetting your own...and in the process losing everything most important in this life. That is how cultures and languages die and become extinct. So many Native American languages died off because they depended heavily on their relationship with their ancestral lands and the lifestyles those created. And when they lost the land, and were subjected to laws foreign to their ways, and were expected to drop their languages and their traditions in order to get crumbs to survive on....it was the end of the end for them. They called those dead Native American cultures ghost nations. And there have been many in the past.

Greece never allowed herself to become a ghost nation. A Greek would die before giving up the nation to another invading force. And the Greeks fight stubbornly constantly for their world view. It makes them very strong. But Coca-Cola culture is everywhere. It is. And it has had an impact on many nations. It is not the best of human values...but marketing is part and parcel of modern capitalism.
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By noemon
#13738085
It's that as well, but trust me, Greece is a linguo-centric nation, aside from the term 'Barbarian' which explicitly manifests this reality, Greek governments in the ancient world, Byzantine and modern have always performed lingo-centric policies. In ancient Athens, in Byzantium and in modern Greece, Greeks have always been subject to a regime of diglossia, one organic speaking language, and one pure Greek for administration. This pure Greek always keeps the organic one from diverging too far, like a rope, it holds it steady.
By IamJoseph
#13738564
The written word is an amazing thing - when it is carefully understood. IMHO, you have made an error in this regard:


Ofc I can and I have already. And you know that better than most and that is why Jews mock Christians as pagans.
That is why Christianity worships Saints, and draws pictures, that is why Christian philosophy is Platonic. Greco-Roman law has been seen to be the basis of all western legal tradition with evidence already so yeah you are mistaken once again, and that makes us 7-0. Law defines the moral code as well as philosophy and the western tradition in both is majorly Greco-Roman rather than Judaic.


That is certainly not correct. The fact is that 2000 years before Chrstianity emerged, the Jews followed the command not to 'WORSHIP" drawings and pictures - however, that law does not say not to draw pictures per se, only not to "worship"/ the text. This command is the most copiously worded of all other laws, and the most specific, making it nigh impossible for the Jews to manipulate around it or for anyone to be confused of its meaning. Christianity is not regarded as pagan, but a monotheistic belief system that has tried hard and succeeded to extricate itself from paganism. This is one of the hardest tasks - the Jews failed in this attempt and had to be given daily injections for 40 years, and only the next generation came up automatically bound by this command; Christianity appears to have succeeded without such measures. Bravo! However, one who is pagan does not become slimed for this factor alone - only if that person commits a crime [sin]. One can believe in pink zebras and be a rightious, good person. The fun only started when some came up with doctrines to villify anyone who remains with their own beliefs. Christianity did this to the Jews, then Islam did this to Christians and the Jews. Only in the Hebrew bible is a good Christian better than a bad Jew; "equal rights to the stranger as the inhabiitant' says it all.

As for grotesque murder and ridiculous laws, the Old testament(leviticus) is rampant with that. The fact is that the Western legal tradition is not Judaic, but Greco-Roman, including the Israeli.


Culturally, philosophically, yes; this was always the case way before Christianity emerged. Paul of Tarsus is a good example. But all laws followed by the world come from the Hebrew, none from the Greeks, to my knowledge.

Second, you are greatly confused as about ancient Greco-Roman religion. First, it can't be called a single religion because there was no central organized authority, each city performed her own city ritual, and religion had nothing to do with law, the Secular code had to do with law. A legalistic* religion that does not exist in the first place, cannot be gone in anyway. The cultural values that defined ancient Greeks and Romans, such as their philosophy, politics, culture and mythology are ofc still not only present but the defining features of western civilization.



Philosophy and laws are not the same thing. The former is derived from the latter, or the absence of same. There is also a difference between ritual and non-ritual laws. Are there any mandated laws elsewhere which relate to animal rights, for example? This says if the Jews did not preserve their laws when threatened by the conquering empires, all Christians would be worshipping head butting pagan deities today. So there was prudent, undeniable plausability in commanding one small group not to worship an image, and told very fastediously. Its in B&W writ. No oil, land or population wealth was given. Damn!
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By noemon
#13738572
But all laws followed by the world come from the Hebrew, none from the Greeks, to my knowledge.


Your knowledge is flawed. All [western] laws come from the Greeks and Romans(Greco-Romans). The Muslim world is the only one who abides by the Book, and has created sharia. The rest of the world abides by Greco-roman law which predates christianity, and the Christian Church itself abides by this law.

Christianity did this to the Jews, then Islam did this to Christians and the Jews. Only in the Hebrew bible is a good Christian better than a bad Jew; "equal rights to the stranger as the inhabiitant' says it all.


This does not show anything, and is more of your wishful thinking, for only under Greek secular law, can Christians, Jews, and Muslims co-exist. It is only Greek secular law and philosophy that allows the equal coexistence of religious groups, for they are bound together under CIVIL law, which is a Greek creation, and not under religious law, which is indeed a Hebrew invention. The problem with your reasoning is that Hebrews might be responsible for religious law, but their religious law has not ever been established in a European judicial system. Ever since christianity was made official, it was the Church that had to be made subject to the already existing Civil law, and not the Civil law to her religious one. You need to think about this carefully before you make anymore.

Also, you need to be made aware of something else as well, Constantine the Great, who made Christianity official religion and his Minister(Eusebius), clarified as about who are the Christians, and the Christians were not Jews, in Eusebius's work, Preparation for the Gospel he answers the question in the 4th CE:
Eusebius the Minister of Constantine in Preparation for the Gospel wrote:To those who inquire who we Christians are and where we come from"..."We [Christians] are Greeks in blood and Greeks in conviction


To understand why Greeks wanted Christianity, you need to read Rostovzeff's book: A Social and Economic History of the Roman Empire, as well as a Social and Economic History of the Hellenistic world, which analyzes the social conditions and the reasons why Greeks hated the Romans, more than anybody else, and how the Greeks tried numerous times to take Rome down from the inside. They managed to, and when they did establish Byzantium which was completely Greek, christianity had no legal use to them since they already had far advanced laws than the Book. Christianity functioned for them as a political ideology against Rome, much like today we flock behind anti-Americanism, or anti-Russia, christianity had that function(since our Greek Gods had already become Roman Gods, so we could not use them against them) and it worked pretty well. In this sense we were influenced by Jews to this extent, but our cultural values were hardly influenced and that is seen from the society, which continued its culture, with its theatres, laws, paintings, science and universities uninterrupted. Much the same way that today you can adopt any ideology without changing your cultural values, Greeks can do that, because Greeks unlike Jews never required a religious Book to act as their national agent because their religion did not act on this capacity, Greek priests were never political figures, like they were in Judeah. Greek "priests" merely performed the rituals, and any citizen of the country could do the ritual without becoming a "priest", every year or month, a different guy did it and had to pay with his own money for the honour to perform the task. So any citizen with a "passport" could be a Priest, since for Greeks, law, morality, history(which defines identity), science, math, all these were like today, distinct sciences dealt by specialists in specific faculties of the universities(and so it continued to the modern day), so religion was as is today merely cosmetic, the moral values are drawn through rigorous Philosophy, and not by delusional shepherds seeing visions, their identity was defined by their historical record, which for them was a science(as they called it History and hence the term) and not a religion, like it is for Jews.

Read this post. And do not conflate the Hebrew worldview with the Hellenic world-view, they are different and the standards they set for themselves are different as well. if there is anyone who abides by Hebrew law in the modern-day and age that is the Fundamentalist Muslims. In fact the Wahhabi Muslims use the exact same arguments that the [orthodox] Jews used against the Greek Jews, 2000 years ago.

Philosophy and laws are not the same thing. The former is derived from the latter, or the absence of same. There is also a difference between ritual and non-ritual laws. Are there any mandated laws elsewhere which relate to animal rights, for example? This says if the Jews did not preserve their laws when threatened by the conquering empires, all Christians would be worshipping head butting pagan deities today. So there was prudent, undeniable plausability in commanding one small group not to worship an image, and told very fastediously. Its in B&W writ. No oil, land or population wealth was given. Damn!.


You are mistaken and greatly confused. In the western canon, Law and Philosophy go hand-in-hand, its not law and the Book that go hand-in-hand, in the western canon, Law is discussed in Universities, not in the Church, ever since the Roman empire.
By IamJoseph
#13738957
Neomon: Your knowledge is flawed. All [western] laws come from the Greeks and Romans(Greco-Romans). The Muslim world is the only one who abides by the Book, and has created sharia. The rest of the world abides by Greco-roman law which predates christianity, and the Christian Church itself abides by this law.


Let the writings be the proof, not what we say. I say not only that all laws accepted by humanity comes from the Hebrew bible, but that not a single law in this category comes from the Greek/Roman sector. That is a most bold statement, one sure to raise some anxst. Please produce a single law to prove your point, without feeling afronted and in the pursuit of honesty only. In contrast, I can produce 100's of laws the world has enshrined in its institutions, and which are contained only in the Hebrew bible; this despite that Jews have been disdained and dispersed whereby their ways have been shunned due to the rejection of many new theologies. This is what I have found after researching the matter.

Sharia has nothing whatsoever to do with the Hebrew bible and is a relatively new theology, emerging 2,600 years later. Christianity follows the Hebrew bible's Creationism and Monotheism, which predates Islam, though it has its own novel way of adhering to these premises; only the cultural traditions of ancient Greece and Romanism are also mixed up there. An example relates to the abandoning of the Sabbath day for the Sunday; the latter is wholly vested in ancient paganism. A prominent Reverand admits this:

http://www.wnd.com/index.php?fa=PAGE.vi ... b295c27e0d
By IamJoseph
#13738964
Neomon: This does not show anything, and is more of your wishful thinking, for only under Greek secular law, can Christians, Jews, and Muslims co-exist.

What are those Greek laws - name one? How can a Muslim or Jew co-exist with the Gospels, which says all who do not follow Jesus are doomed to a very hot place for a very long time - regardless if they are good or bad folk? The only writings I know which can assist humanity is the laws of equality, not a particular theology's version of it. The law must be pristine and stand on its own merit. E.g. EQUAL RGHTS TO THE STRANGER AS THE INHABITANT; THE RICH AS THE POOR. And that none can be held accountable accept that 'ONLY THE ONE THAT SINS SHALL PAY': sins pertain to transgression of laws, not of names.

The notion of inalieanable human rights and Liberty comes from the Hebrew bible, not from the Grecko/Roman beliefs; so do the laws which change slaves into contracted workers with rights, introducing such laws as one day of rest with pay; retirement payments; compensation for injury or ill-treatment; automatic freedom after a certain period of work; the right for a slave to marry and have children; etc. The Hebrew laws give equal justice to a slave as the king, as seen with Israel's greatest King David, sentenced to death based on the laws. Seperation of state and religion also come from this point. These filtered into Europe and Christianity via the Hebrew bible exclusively.
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By noemon
#13738996
You clearly are unaware, of what is Civil Law. You are clearly unaware of the fact that the primitive "Biblical laws" were already present as laws in Greco-Roman civil law, and that is why there is no European-Christian Sharia, because your biblical laws became available at a stage when Greco-Roman society was already rigorously studying law as a SCIENCE(and not as the blabbering visions of shepherds), and these primitive Biblical laws were already a given in our societies.

If you want to see Greco-Roman law you should study it professionally(if you have access to a University Library, you can find a lot of material and sources), because unlike the Bible, Greco-Roman law is entire Volumes, not just a little book.

I cannot and I am not going to teach you the difference between Civil Law, and biblical or religious, but the fact is that:

This Roman law, in turn, became the foundation of law in all civil law jurisdictions. The provisions of the Corpus Juris Civilis also influenced the Canon Law of the church: it was said that ecclesia vivit lege romana — the church lives by Roman law.[2] Influence on the common-law systems has been much smaller, although some basic concepts from the Corpus have survived through Norman law - such as the contrast, especially in the Institutes, between "law and custom (lex et consuetudo)". The Corpus continues to have a major influence on public international law. Its four parts thus constitute the foundation documents of the western legal tradition.


This suffices to prove you wrong, and I do not need to carry on any further. The laws of your Book are as relevant as Wahhabi Muslims blowing themselves up.

Separation of Church and State, the Hebrews? Up until the 20th century were governed by the Rabbis. LOL. Abolition of slavery because of the OT? Oh man, you are on a roll.

Honestly, I'm done here so you can knock yourself out claiming anything you like, the readers of this forum are far more advanced and do not require any further clarifications on my part.

The book I gave you earlier(The Social and Economic History of the Roman Empire), analyzes the Law of Greco-Roman society, and the tiny influence christianity had on it. It is worth noting that Christianity did not have any actual influence on it, except for accommodating the Christian organization as an organization, it did not have any qualitative influence on Greco-Roman law. Read the book if you want answers, these are proper scholars.
By IamJoseph
#13739864
"You clearly are unaware, of what is Civil Law. You are clearly unaware of the fact that the primitive "Biblical laws" were already present as laws in Greco-Roman civil law"

Neomon, it is not a law unless written down and given a state sanctioned reference - this too comes from the Hebrew bible, now accepted everywhere. Where is the Greek version of it?

There are many kinds of laws, civil being one aligned to civic. There are moral, ethical, judiciary, human rights, animal rights, copyright laws, war laws, ritual laws, etc, etc. The first law in the 10 Commandments refers to the existence of God: its first two words are in the ancient Egyptian language, directed at the Pharoah, who knew not Hebrew but asserted himself as divine. It may be the first transliteration of ancient Egyptian to another language we have, which shows how this is a contemporary writing. Namely, these two words are "I AM" ['ANO CHI' in Egyptian]. The second law is about Monotheism, advocating there is only One God.

It is the third law which becomes interesting and shows how a majestic writing presents itself in the correct protocol, namely, it appears before all moral, ethical, judiciary and all other laws. Why so? Because it is the law of truthfullness, not truth [the former means being as truthful as we can, while the latter is elusive and un-knowable]. It refers to NOT TAKING THE NAME IN VAIN [as in a contract, promise or marraige vow, etc]. This is the correct protocol for a book of laws, for what good is any law where there is no truthfulness? What kind of belief or love is it which is based on lies or falsehoods?

I doubt these laws came after or from Greece or Greek thought: Greek was a most polytheistic nation.
By IamJoseph
#13739870
The laws of your Book are as relevant as Wahhabi Muslims blowing themselves up.


Actually, the Hebrew law states one must forfeit their lives before causung the death of an innocent person. Which version did you read? How do you define laws such as 'ONLY THE SOUL THAT SINS IT SHALL PAY and THOU SHALT NOT MURDER?


Separation of Church and State, the Hebrews? Up until the 20th century were governed by the Rabbis. LOL. Abolition of slavery because of the OT? Oh man, you are on a roll.


Again, you are far from being right at all. If you examine the writings against your conclusions, it shows that King David was sentenced to death and deemed guilty for the crime of adultry by the prophet Nathan. The King represented the State and the Prophet represented the Law. I doubt you can find any place where a nation's greatest king is subjected to the law in this fashion. This then is where the seperation of state and religion is first recorded, some 3,300 years ago, in the Book of Kings.
By IamJoseph
#13739933
Then there is this new or different take on language origins, pointing to one language emerging from Eden [?], from which all languages emerged, including Phoenecian and Hebrew. It says each language divergence collected local input and became different. It also says Hebrew is the closest connection to Edenite, as opposed being a deritive of Phoenecian or Canaanite: I know of no Canaanite writings, and the Hebrew bible texts say the five books of Moses was completed before the Hebrews returned to Canaan. This source also lists 100's of english words which came from Hebrew, and from a host of other European languages. An excerpt:



THE ORIGIN OF SPEECHES: From the Language of Eden
to Our Babble After Babel. Isaac Mozeson – http://www.edenics.com

Ah, the ”B” word! So this is a fundamentalist treatise for bible believers? Not so fast. Some secular geneticists have recently concluded that the wide variety of modern humankind emerged from the gene pool of a single woman. These scientists were not afraid to refer to this hypothetical first modern woman as “Eve.”

The evidence in this study called “Edenics” similarly points towards the wide variety of human vocabulary deriving from a neurolinguistic mix-up of an original language -- to be called “Edenic.” The letters of Edenic words are like the genes of one proto-canine that was to diversify into a proto-wolf, proto-fox, proto-hound, etc. which were to further diversify and become our present-day menagerie of hundreds of dog breeds.

Was this diversification from random mutation and survival of the fittest? It may not necessarily be so. The title of this book suggests an alternative to Darwin’s The Origin of Species. Nature, or force behind nature, is pro-diversity. The thesis clearly recalls the scenario of Genesis 11 where the one Earth language of Eden was diversified at the Tower of Babel (in one Big Bang whose aftershocks still reverberate).

Parallel legends in Chinese, Mayan and other remote and ancient lore suggest that there was some similar primeval linguistic trauma experienced by these isolated peoples. An original, universal language is widely reported as having been broken up. How did this neuro-linguistics disturbance work to diversify language? It is difficult to know. An abnormal aspect of this marvelous language program that we seem to have had factory-installed involves glossolalia, the rare but documented ability of people in altered states of consciousness to speak in languages that they have never learned.

Did some electromagnetic or other disturbance cause a unified community of humans in prehistoric Babel to suddenly speak in different languages? Did the proto-Indo-European speakers, for example, then migrate north and east, with clans forming according to who spoke a similar Sanskrit, Helenic or Slavonic? We may never know.

But this book outlines how that diversification appears to have happened. A study of comparative grammars is not our focus. We will deal here only with vocabulary, with words. This is about the poetic and musical sides of linguistics, the sound of sense. I stumbled upon the science of linguistics only because it was a requirement in a doctoral literature curriculum. Some of the science was artistic. This book, then, involves both the arts and sciences. It is about the dance of the music of meaning among the tonalities we call letters. And that music of sound and sense begins with the earliest language we shall call “Edenic.”

Could there have actually been a homo sapiens named Adam with a blown-out cranial cavity (Genesis 2:7) whose larger brain enabled him to name some animals (Genesis 2:19-20)? Maybe. After reading the chapter on animal names, and the rest of the book, some readers may want to speculate on the Genesis scenario and its implications. But the heart of the book’s thesis is that all humans are in one choir, and that language is the music of meaning. It took several millennia, but now this book comes along to try and breathe life into this ancient thesis.


Prominent contemporary linguists have established that human language is hardwired into our species’ unique brain. How that wiring job came to be is not a concern of science. After reading this book, one should be more inclined to accept the fact that our uniquely speaking species has language software and hardware that were well engineered for each other.


Our lexicographers occasionally publish hunches for etymologies, but they sometimes settle for the designation “origin unknown.” One such unknown origin belongs to the word LAD (boy). YeLeD is a boy in Biblical Hebrew; walid is a boy in Arabic. Lamed-Dalet (LD) is the root of birthing throughout Semitic. Once some anachronistic 19th Century, racist myths about different races and languages evolving from separate simian ancestors are discarded, many such language mysteries are solved. The Old School of linguistics maintains that human vocabulary is a man-made, chaotic mess. The new discipline of Edenics attempts to demonstrate that words are worlds as beautifully arranged as anything in natural science.

This book is merely the newly cleared tip of an immense iceberg. Both those who were taught that Hebrew is a late branch of West Semitic and those who were taught that Adam and Eve spoke Hebrew are predisposed to reject some aspects of Edenic theory. One camp must realize that the rule of simpler-means-later does not apply for the original language program – and Hebrew is the closest relative to Edenic. The other camp must realize that a lot of water flowed down the Tigris from Adam’s Edenic to Abraham’s Hebrew – so that Hebrew is merely the closest relative to Edenic. Readers from both camps are asked to scale this iceberg step-by-step, and to reserve conclusions until after they have attained the perspective of the summit.

The origin of species and of speeches … One can certainly argue that
the spectacular variety of butterflies indicates that species diversified and adapted on their own to different environments. It is not known if this was Darwinian mutation and survival of the fittest or if the genes were naturally programmed to adapt.

As for the diversity of speeches, the reader here will discover how the Edenic letters are uniquely versatile. This special alphabet, or Aleph-Bet, contains the “genes” for the diversity of what is now over six thousand languages (dialects which became incomprehensible to the speakers of the parent language). A good example of this appears in the chart at the end of this introduction.


Is the human species more or less fit for survival with our diverse languages? How natural or accidental was this linguistic breakup? If a “Creator of speech” (Isaiah 57:19) did purposefully scramble an original language (Genesis 11), then why project toward an ultimate time when our disunited nations finally arrive back to a state of knowing a linguistic and deistic Oneness (Zephaniah 3:9)? This book addresses such difficult questions, both with speculation that readers may reject, and with data that readers may confirm.



Darwin’s 1859 classic, The Origin of Species, offered a consistent thesis of Chaos. If this book explores biblical modes of Control, it will have to deal with several difficult problems. Unlike the “how?” of science, the bible attempts to answer the “why?” Why then would the Proto-Earth tongue be diversified? How could Abram the Chaldean become a Hebrew-speaker? Why is it unlikely that the traditional Torah letters evolved from hieroglyphs? How do the shapes of this Aleph-Bet (software) point to the engineering of the human mouth (hardware)?

A small fraction of this book involves theory. Most of it involves data that supports the hypothesis of this newest, oldest theory of language origin. This book begins to document how the Babel-babble at the Babylonian valley of Shinar-Sumer (traditionally dated 1996 from Adam) might have allowed what became English and other languages to spin-off and de-evolve from an original, universal Edenic language. In one word, then, this book is about etymology. On the semantic surface, this merely means word history. But etymology is from the Greek etmos, truth. So searching and researching word history may bring about a revolution in something much larger: in truth itself.

Edenics claims that etmos, Greek truth, resulted from a slightly scrambled Edenic EMeT, Aleph-Mem-Tahf, truth. An entire chapter is devoted to this phenomenon of rearranged root letters, known as metathesis in linguistics. Our current reference books and college curricula are correct to consider etmos a meaningless sound arbitrarily used to fill a semantic need. With only access to Hellenic “truth,” it is no wonder that so many people feel that words are meaningless accidents. If ETM or EMT do not mean the same thing from sheer coincidence, who is to say that the Greek term is not the older one? History aside, Edenics will offer the reader structural reasons why EMeT is the original “truth.” (See the metathesis chapter.)

Edenics words are like chemical compounds, and readers will be amazed to discover that words (in their pristine form) are organic, scientific devices that are loaded with unique meaning. Please don’t mistake this book for just another discussion of word origins. Linger at the beauty of the individual trees, but please don’t lose the general forest for the trees. The data adds up to an epic culture clash between Chaos and Control.


Only a few, easy technical terms are used in this book. The only unavoidable, newly coined terms here are Edenic (the language) and Edenics (the field of study).

Edenic is the original, universal Earth language spoken at Eden. It was subject to a Big Bang of diversification in the ongoing process of de-evolution begun at the Tower of Babel. Traditionally, the initial trauma created seventy spinoffs. These were languages like Sanskrit, Quechua (Inca), Basque and Hellenic. More of these will be identified by more skilled future researchers. These proto-languages continue to split off in a process that has peaked at 6,000 dialects. Mass media may get the planet back down to seventy languages in two generations.

That one and unique Proto-Semitic language of Edenic is most like Hebrew, but is significantly different from Modern Hebrew. There are important roots of Edenic that are preserved in other Semitic languages. Many of these roots or words are not clearly visible in the Hebrew Bible. Citations from the Bible offer the most accessible and fully developed literary context from which to understand a word. A small, isolated fragment from some other Semitic artifact can barely compare.

Anthropologists agree that agriculture began in Israel and Jordan some ten thousand years ago. If you find a language without agricultural words, you are welcome to call it pre-Edenic. The oldest human remains ever found with the hyoid bone (in the throat) for speech was unearthed in the Carmel Caves near Haifa, Israel. The hyoid is the bone stuck in the throat of Edenics deniers. All the hard evidence points to Proto-Semitic being earliest.

Amid the fractious skullduggery of anthropologists digging up skulls in Africa and Asia, nobody has found an older skeleton with a hyoid bone anywhere else. The burden of proof is on scientists to prove that actual speakers, not just tool-using knuckle-walkers, might have begun civilization and literacy somewhere other than in the Middle East.
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By Loba
#13739949
Edenics claims that etmos, Greek truth, resulted from a slightly scrambled Edenic EMeT, Aleph-Mem-Tahf, truth. An entire chapter is devoted to this phenomenon of rearranged root letters, known as metathesis in linguistics.


I do not think there is plain metathesis. The ancient greek word is "etymos", coming from "etazo" (ετάζω/ means: examin - in modern Greek: exetazo/εξετάζω/examine). "Etymos" is result of examination, thus truth. The letter m of "etymos" comes along to the rules of adjectives formation in Greek language. Neither that "m" nor the mean of "examin" seems to be related with the Hebrew EMT.
By geb
#13740736
[youtube]fwXOr47EJ1E[/youtube]
By IamJoseph
#13741260
English from Spain?

An interesting theory. English was very influenced by German and French, with words which appear older than Saxon and Rome; e.g. words not seen in the Roman latin. The link attributes this to Spanish influence, but its proof of the Spanish display of language 500 years before Rome, namely at least 2,700 years ago - is wanting. Spain was a super power little before Britain, which is relatively recent, some 500-600 years ago; there is no history of Spain 2,700 years ago of any writings or languages to my knowledge.
By IamJoseph
#13741267
Loba: "Neither that "m" nor the mean of "examin" seems to be related with the Hebrew EMT."

The word EMET means TRUTH, a common word in the Hebrew bible and the Hebrew language. It will be interesting to see the same hard copy historical proof of the Greek; I doubt such proof exists.
By geb
#13741400
English was very influenced by German and French, with words which appear older than Saxon and Rome;
German influence older than A-S? French older than Latin?
e.g. words not seen in the Roman latin.
because they evolved from Latin

The video does NOT mention any Spanish language influence on English; its only mentions gene influx from refugees south of the Ice Age.
Eventhough Spanish never existed 2,700 years ago, just the fact of having no written sources of a language doesn't deny its existence. http://proto-english.org/
By Amanita
#13741498
That video is quite interesting, geb. However, does the 'ey' in those place names necessarily imply there was a lake? For example, I seem to recollect that Mersey means border (march) river, in reference to the natural border between the Kingdoms of Northumbria and Mercia. So maybe these places were just river islands.
By geb
#13741511
Well the names do seem aligned, which could imply a river rather than a lake; but how could the road have been built across (or through)?
By Amanita
#13741523
A road-bridge? Or maybe the area flooded some time after the Roman road was built.
By geb
#13741568
This map reveals ponds around the area, an indication that there might've been a lake.
User avatar
By Suska
#13741569
I have no idea where they got this lake idea from that whole area is 2 to 300 feet above sea level draining into the Bristol Channel, also there are no rivers where the lake is supposed to have been though there are rivers to the east and the southeast. Also these supposed place names would have to be at least near 3000 years old to predate Romans.
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