- 28 Feb 2016 01:22
#14656260
The way that I would do it is:
1 -> 4
2 -> 3
3 -> 1
4 -> 5
5 -> 6
etc.
There are infinitely many solutions using the above archetype.
This hits all (natural) numbers without repeating, all inputs have unique solutions, and every input has one output (i.e., no abs. inequalities)
BTW, isn't rule 1 redundant because of rule 2?
1 -> 4
2 -> 3
3 -> 1
4 -> 5
5 -> 6
etc.
There are infinitely many solutions using the above archetype.
This hits all (natural) numbers without repeating, all inputs have unique solutions, and every input has one output (i.e., no abs. inequalities)
BTW, isn't rule 1 redundant because of rule 2?
What am I wrong about?