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#14843342
ingliz wrote:You are grasping at straws now.

:p

You don't even have straws to grasp for your theory has vanished into thin air. Praise the Lord. HalleluYah.
#14843350
Hindsite wrote:You don't even have straws to grasp for your theory has vanished into thin air. Praise the Lord. HalleluYah.

I have noticed your posts get sillier and sillier when you are losing an argument.

It's a bad habit.

A better look is to concede gracefully and move on.


:)
#14843367
ingliz wrote:I have noticed your posts get sillier and sillier when you are losing an argument.

It's a bad habit.

A better look is to concede gracefully and move on.

:)

Some other reasons why Babylon being code for Rome in 1 Peter 5:13 and Revelation 17 -18 does not fit:

Because Rome, with the Vatican, is home to the global system of Roman Catholicism, the identity of Babylon as the city of Rome has often gone hand-in-hand with the view that The Great Harlot represents Roman Catholicism, possibly wed with other religious systems.

The identity of Babylon with Rome has been bolstered by three events of history:

1. The fall of Jerusalem in A.D. 70 - In a similar way that Babylon destroyed Jerusalem and Solomon’s Temple in the days of Nebuchadnezzar, Rome destroyed Jerusalem and the Second Temple under Titus. This established Rome as a key enemy of Israel and Jerusalem prior to the time of John’s writing. Thus it is thought to be only natural that Babylon would be used as a code name for Rome.

2. Christian Persecution - For the early church (remembering that John wrote from exile on Patmos during the reign of Domitian), the modern-day persecutor of the saints was Rome. Although John’s prophecies concerned the time of the end, those who have sought to restrict fulfillment to his immediate audience can find no other viable candidate outside of Rome. At that time, she was indeed “the center of the world’s merchandise and the persecutor of the saints.”

3. The Reformation - When the reformers broke away from Roman Catholicism, the prophecies concerning Babylon and the Beast provided ready ammunition against Rome. By identifying the papal system and Rome with the Beast and Babylon, it could be clearly seen that Roman Catholicism was the predicted enemy of the true faith and destined for eventual destruction. Due to its great utility, this view has dominated Protestant interpretation for many years. “The Romish Church is not only accidentally and as a matter of fact, but in virtue of its very PRINCIPLE, a harlot, the metropolis of whoredom, ‘the mother of harlots’; whereas the evangelical Protestant Church is, according to her principle and fundamental creed, a chaste woman; the Reformation was a protest of the woman against the harlot.

In addition, the notion that John’s audience would have understood the imagery of Revelation (Rev. 17) as referring to the topography of Rome seems strengthened by the discovery of the Dea Roma Coin minted in A.D. 71 in Asia Minor. One side of the coin contains the portrait of the emperor. The reverse side of the coin depicts Rome, a Roman pagan goddess, sitting on seven hills seated by the waters of the Tiber River. There are obvious similarities between the Dea Roma Coin and the imagery of Revelation.

In both cases, the goddess and the harlot are seated on seven hills and are seated either on or by the waters. In addition, the name of the goddess was thought by many Romans to be Amor, which is Roma spelled backwards. Amor was the goddess of love and sexuality. Thus, both the woman on the coin and the woman in Revelation represent harlotry (Rev. 17:5). Furthermore, the coin equates Roma with the power of the Roman Empire, which was active in persecuting Christians of John’s day. The placement of Vespasian on one side of the coin and Roma on the other makes this connection. The goddess is also pictured as holding a sword, which may depict Rome’s imperial power. This imagery parallels with the woman in Revelation who is said to be drunk with the blood of the saints (Rev. 17:6).

This association sounds convincing until one studies the text of Revelation more closely.

EXAMPLE 1:
Then the angel carried me away in the Spirit into a wilderness. There I saw a woman sitting on a scarlet beast that was covered with blasphemous names and had seven heads and ten horns.
(Revelation 17:3 NIV)

And he took me away in spirit into the desert. And I saw a woman sitting upon a scarlet coloured beast, full of names of blasphemy, having seven heads and ten horns.
(Revelation 17:3 Douay-Rheims Bible)

Rome or the Vatican is not located in a wilderness or a desert.

EXAMPLE 2:
"Here is the mind which has wisdom. The seven heads are seven mountains on which the woman sits, and they are seven kings; five have fallen, one is, the other has not yet come; and when he comes, he must remain a little while.
(Revelation 17:9-10 NASB)

The mountains are to be understood in their typical Scriptural usage as denoting kingdoms (Jer. 51:25; Dan. 2:35; Zec. 4:7) and may not be related to topography at all. The Great Harlot is said to sit on these mountains. She is also said to sit on peoples, multitudes, nations, and tongues (Rev. 17:15). Thus, her sitting probably speaks of the scope of her influence and control rather than a physical location.

EXAMPLE 3:
Another problem with taking Babylon to be Rome is her relatively late appearance as a major empire. The Great Harlot is said to be “that great city” (Rev. 17:18). She is also said to be the “mother of harlots and of the abominations of the earth” (Rev. 17:5). She is the source and origin of harlotry (spiritual idolatry) and abominations. Rome can hardly be said to occupy this role because harlotry occurs in the Biblical record far in advance of the time of Rome. Those who identify Babylon as Rome often point to the undeniable similarities between the history and practices of Roman Catholicism and what is said concerning The Great Harlot. But does this mean that Babylon is Rome? Might it not simply reflect the truth that Rome is one of the Harlot’s most influential daughter harlots of history?

Rome cannot provide the necessary support for the ride of the Harlot throughout history as implied by the seven heads on the Beast she rides (Rev. 17:3 and Rev. 13:1) which are associated with the dragon (Rev. 12:3) who has ruled kingdoms throughout history (Luke 4:5-6; John 12:31; 1 John. 5:19).
#14843415
Occam's Razor.

Or for this discussion, lex parsimoniae.

Rome means Rome.

I am surprised that a Biblical Fundamentalist who argues that the Bible's meanings are to be take literally, runs hard and fast away from that principle when the meaning is inconvenient.
#14843472
Hindsite wrote:Rome cannot provide...

If Babylon is not Rome, why (according to tradition) did the Roman authorities consider his prophesies a threat, and banish him?

"I, John, both your brother and companion in tribulation ... was on the island that is called Patmos for the word of God and for the testimony of Jesus Christ."

Revelation 1:9

Pliny, Natural History Bk.4 Ch.12 wrote:Pathmos, in Circuit 30 Miles.

At least thirteen Aegean islands – including some relatively close to Patmos – were used as prison colonies, leading Juvenal (Satires 13.246-7) to describe them as ‘craggy rocks crowded with our noble exiles’: maris Aegaei rupem scopulosque frequentes exulibus magnis.

Tacitus lists three - Gyaros ("a dreary and uninhabited island," see Annals 3.69), Donousa, and Amorgos - as places of banishment.

Tacitus, Annals 4.30 wrote:The Senate then gave their votes that Serenus should be punished according to ancient precedent, when the emperor, to soften the odium of the affair, interposed with his veto. Next, Gallus Asinius proposed that he should be confined in Gyaros or Donusa, but this he rejected, on the ground that both these islands were deficient in water, and that he whose life was spared, ought to be allowed the necessaries of life. And so Serenus was conveyed back to Amorgus.




:)
#14843476
ingliz wrote:If Babylon is not Rome, why (according to tradition) did the Roman authorities consider his prophesies a threat, and banish him?

"I, John, both your brother and companion in tribulation ... was on the island that is called Patmos for the word of God and for the testimony of Jesus Christ."

:)

The Romans did not banish him for any prophecy, since he did not receive the Revelation until after that. As he says himself, he was banished for teaching the word of God and for his testimony concerning Jesus Christ.

Drlee wrote:Occam's Razor.

Or for this discussion, lex parsimoniae.

Rome means Rome.

I am surprised that a Biblical Fundamentalist who argues that the Bible's meanings are to be take literally, runs hard and fast away from that principle when the meaning is inconvenient.

You apparently did not carefully read what I wrote, because I never said Rome does not mean Rome. I said Babylon did not mean Rome in 1 Peter 5:13. HalleluYah
#14843478
The Romans did not banish him for any prophecy

No?

Banishment was the punishment for prophecy.

A martyr's death was punishment for preaching Christianity.

John died of old age.

Adela Collins. (1985). "Patmos" Harper's Bible Dictionary wrote:Early tradition says that John was banished to Patmos by the Roman authorities. This tradition is credible because banishment was a common punishment used during the Imperial period for a number of offenses. Among such offenses were the practices of magic and astrology. Prophecy was viewed by the Romans as belonging to the same category, whether Pagan, Jewish, or Christian. Prophecy with political implications, like that expressed by John in the book of Revelation, would have been perceived as a threat to Roman political power and order.


:)
#14843653
ingliz wrote:No? Banishment was the punishment for prophecy.
A martyr's death was punishment for preaching Christianity.
John died of old age.
:)

WRONG

The apostle John, who wrote it under the inspiration of Jesus Christ (Revelation 1:1), mentions where it was written and that it was addressed to congregations in seven cities in Asia Minor.

We learn from John that he wrote Revelation from the island of Patmos (verse 9), in the Aegean Sea 40 miles off the coast of Asia Minor (modern- day Turkey). Patmos is a small island of only 24 square miles (62 square kilometers), with a coastline in the shape of a horseshoe.

The Roman historian Tacitus (A.D. 56-120), in his book Annals, mentions the policy of banishing political prisoners to small islands (Sections 3:68; 4:30; 15:71).

During the time of John’s exile, traditionally 94-96, history records violent persecution against Christians under the reign of the Roman emperor Domitian (81-96). This despot declared himself a god and demanded the worship of his subjects— with the exception of Jews. This meant that once a year each head of household had to appear before authorities, burn incense to the emperor and declare, “Caesar is lord.” Those who refused were branded as traitors and either sentenced to death or exiled.

Since Christians confessed they had only one Lord, Jesus Christ, they were mercilessly hounded. John, the last living apostle of the original 12, apparently was banished for this reason.


https://www.ucg.org/the-good-news/the-b ... d-prophecy

From the above article, we discover that John says he wrote the Revelation from the island of Patmos where he had been imprisoned most likely for refusing to declare "Caesar is Lord." It is clear from John's own words that he was already banished to the island of Patmos when he wrote Revelation, so it could not possibly be for that reason.
#14843720
How is this thread about spiritality? I just see rants and bickering, which is not what spirituality is about. I think at least one person in this threads needs to relearn the meaning of spirituality. And finger pointing is not part of spirituality, I think. ;)

:)
#14843752
Hindsite wrote:so it could not possibly be for that reason.

Why not?

"And He says unto me, You must again prophesy to the peoples, and to the tongues, and to the nations, and to many kings."

Revelation 10:11

Dionysius (Bishop of the Patriarchy of Alexandria) stated that Revelation was not written by the same person who wrote John's Gospel and letters.

Dionysius quoted by Eusebius, The Apocalypse of John. Ecclesiastical History Bk. 7 Ch. 25:8 wrote:For I judge from the character of both, and the forms of expression, and the entire execution of the book, that it is not his.

Revelation is written in much poorer Greek than the Gospel and letters, it even spells Jerusalem (Ἰερουσαλὴμ) differently than the Gospel (Ἱεροσόλυμα).


:)
Last edited by ingliz on 15 Sep 2017 13:37, edited 1 time in total.
#14843779
ingliz wrote:Why not?

He was already banished to the island of Patmos when he wrote Revelation.
And I gave you the reason he was exiled.

ingliz wrote:Dionysius (Bishop of the Patriarchy of Alexandria) stated that Revelation was not written by the same person who wrote John's Gospel and letters.

Revelation is written in much poorer Greek than the Gospel and letters, it even spells Jerusalem (Ἰερουσαλὴμ) differently than the Gospel does (Ἱεροσόλυμα).

:)

Dionysius does not know and his view is a minority view. In Greek, the endings of words can vary depending on what is being said. It is not like English where a place always has the same spelling. For examples see the following:

Matthew 21:10 Strong's 2414 (Ἱεροσόλυμα) Jerusalem
Matthew 23:37 Strong's 2419 (Ἰερουσαλὴμ) Jerusalem

Mark 11:1 Strong's 2419 (Ἰερουσαλὴμ) Jerusalem
Mark 11:11 Strong's 2414 (Ἱεροσόλυμα) Jerusalem

Luke 2:42 Strong's 2414 (Ἱεροσόλυμα) Jerusalem
Luke 2:43 Strong's 2419 (Ἰερουσαλὴμ) Jerusalem

Acts 1:4 Strong's 2414 (Ἱεροσόλυμα) Jerusalem
Acts 1:8 Strong's 2419 (Ἰερουσαλὴμ) Jerusalem

MistyTiger wrote:How is this thread about spiritality? I just see rants and bickering, which is not what spirituality is about. I think at least one person in this threads needs to relearn the meaning of spirituality. And finger pointing is not part of spirituality, I think. ;)

:)

It is about religion and as far as I know, (Spirituality) has been designated to include religious discussions.
#14843802
Hindsite wrote:his view is a minority view

No.

Modern scholarship has remained unconvinced, preferring to identify the John of Revelation with John Mark, John the Elder, an otherwise unknown John, or a pseudonymous writer claiming for his work the prestige attaching to the name of the apostle.

Bart Ehrman wrote:I would like to stress two points: first, they almost certainly were not written by the same person (note: they do not claim to be); and second, whoever these two authors were, neither one of them was John the son of Zebedee.

they almost certainly were not written by the same person

"as he hath declared to his servants the prophets."

Rev. 10:11

He does not call himself an apostle.

W. Barclay,The Revelation of John, Introduction wrote:His claim for himself is that he is a prophet, and it is on that fact that he rests his right to speak. The command of the Risen Christ to him is that he must prophesy (Rev. 10:11). It is through the spirit of prophecy that Jesus gives his witness to the Church (Rev. 19:10). God is the God of the holy prophets and sends his angel to show his servants what is going to happen in the world (Rev. 22:6). The angel speaks to him of his brothers the prophets (Rev. 22:9). His book is characteristically prophecy or the words of prophecy (Rev. 22:7,10; Rev. 22:18-19).

It is here that John's authority lies. He does not call himself an apostle, as Paul does when he wishes to underline his right to speak. He has no "official" or administrative position in the Church; he is a prophet.

Eusebius found in the report of two tombs of John at Ephesus confirmation of the inference which he drew from Papias.

Eusebius, History Bk. VII 25:16 wrote:But I think that he was some other one of those in Asia; as they say that there are two monuments in Ephesus, each bearing the name of John.

In Greek, the endings of words can vary...

Except...

Strongs NT 2414 (Ἱεροσόλυμα) is the invariable form in Mark and John.


:)
#14843921
ingliz wrote:No.

Modern scholarship has remained unconvinced, preferring to identify the John of Revelation rather with John Mark, John the Elder, an otherwise unknown John, or a pseudonymous writer claiming for his work the prestige attaching to the name of the apostle.

He does not call himself an apostle.

Eusebius found in the report of two tombs of John at Ephesus confirmation of the inference which he drew from Papias.

Except...

Strongs NT 2414 (Ἱεροσόλυμα) is the invariable form in Mark and John.
:)

Second century Christian writers such as Justin Martyr, Irenaeus, Melito the bishop of Sardis, and Clement of Alexandria and the author of the Muratorian fragment identify John the Apostle as the "John" of Revelation.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Book_of_Revelation

By early tradition, even Origen and Tertullian also believed Revelation was written by John, the “beloved” apostle among the Twelve disciples chosen by Jesus.

The grammar argument by Eusebius didn’t sway the late G.B. Caird of Oxford University. His 1966 commentary contends that Revelation “is not ungrammatical, but has a grammar of its own, unparalleled in any other ancient writing, but nonetheless real and consistent,” that reflected a writer “thinking in Hebrew” while writing in Greek.

Read more at http://www.patheos.com/blogs/religionqa ... RHywMhY.99

There is ample evidence that it was written by John the apostle. The very fact that the author of the apocalypse simply calls himself John is a dead giveaway that he was well known throughout the churches in Asia Minor.

Additionally, the fingerprints of John the apostle are all over the apocalypse! One need only open their eyes and ears to apprehend the clues.

For example, John, and John alone, identifies Jesus as the Word, or Logos (John 1:1, 14; Revelation 19:13).

Likewise, John alone identifies Jesus as the true witness (John 5:31–47; 8:14–18; Revelation 2:13; 3:14), and it is John who most exploits the Mosaic requirement of two witnesses (John 8:12–30; Revelation 11:1–12).

Added to this, there is undeniable commonality in the symbolic use of the number seven that transcends its literal meaning. It is also noteworthy that like the gospel of John, Revelation is a literary masterpiece.

http://www.equip.org/bible_answers/who- ... evelation/

I am not sure, but I think Paul is the only one that calls himself an apostle. We call the twelve disciples by the name "apostles" mainly because of Paul's assertions. I don't recall any of the disciples claiming to be an apostle or a prophet. But Jesus did not restrict his disciples from being apostles and prophets.

The apostle Peter interpreted O.T. prophecy in Acts and became a prophet when he writes the following:

This is now the second letter that I am writing to you, beloved. In both of them I am stirring up your sincere mind by way of reminder, that you should remember the predictions of the holy prophets and the commandment of the Lord and Savior through your apostles, knowing this first of all, that scoffers will come in the last days with scoffing, following their own sinful desires. They will say, “Where is the promise of his coming? For ever since the fathers fell asleep, all things are continuing as they were from the beginning of creation.” For they deliberately overlook this fact, that the heavens existed long ago, and the earth was formed out of water and through water by the word of God, and that by means of these the world that then existed was deluged with water and perished. But by the same word the heavens and earth that now exist are stored up for fire, being kept until the day of judgment and destruction of the ungodly.

But do not overlook this one fact, beloved, that with the Lord one day is as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day. The Lord is not slow to fulfill his promise as some count slowness, but is patient toward you, not wishing that any should perish, but that all should reach repentance. But the day of the Lord will come like a thief, and then the heavens will pass away with a roar, and the heavenly bodies will be burned up and dissolved, and the earth and the works that are done on it will be exposed.

Since all these things are thus to be dissolved, what sort of people ought you to be in lives of holiness and godliness, waiting for and hastening the coming of the day of God, because of which the heavens will be set on fire and dissolved, and the heavenly bodies will melt as they burn! But according to his promise we are waiting for new heavens and a new earth in which righteousness dwells.

(2 Peter 1-13)

The Apostle John is the only one of the Apostles to predict the coming of the antichrist and many antichrists in his two letters.

I have already disproved your argument concerning the spellings of Jerusalem in Greek by giving examples of both spellings being used by the same author of Matthew, Mark, Luke, and Acts. So that is a dead issue now. Praise the Lord. HalleluYah.
#14843936
Hindsite wrote:By early tradition

A two-edged sword.

You will look very silly dismissing the Petrine tradition if you embrace the Johannine.

The grammar

Dionysius calls it "barbarous".

the author of the apocalypse simply calls himself John

Papias of Hierapolis clearly states that there were two persons by the name of John in the early church: one the apostle, and another an elder at Ephesus, who received the visions on Patmos.

"3. He [Papias] says: But I shall not hesitate also to put down for you along with my interpretations whatsoever things I have at any time learned carefully from the elders and carefully remembered, guaranteeing their truth. For I did not, like the multitude, take pleasure in those that speak much, but in those that teach the truth; not in those that relate strange commandments, but in those that deliver the commandments given by the Lord to faith, and springing from the truth itself.

4. If, then, any one came, who had been a follower of the elders, I questioned him in regard to the words of the elders— what Andrew or what Peter said, or what was said by Philip, or by Thomas, or by James, or by John, or by Matthew, or by any other of the disciples of the Lord, and what things Aristion and the presbyter John, the disciples of the Lord, say. For I did not think that what was to be gotten from the books would profit me as much as what came from the living and abiding voice.
5. It is worth while observing here that the name John is twice enumerated by him. The first one he mentions in connection with Peter and James and Matthew and the rest of the apostles, clearly meaning the evangelist; but the other John he mentions after an interval, and places him among others outside of the number of the apostles, putting Aristion before him, and he distinctly calls him a presbyter.

6. This shows that the statement of those is true, who say that there were two persons in Asia that bore the same name."


Eusebius, Eccl. Hist. III xxxix

there is undeniable commonality

The trinitarian emphases of the Seer of Patmos are quite different than those of the evangelist. God is Creator, Christ is a warrior, and the Spirit is not one, but seven (Rev. 1:4).

both spellings being used by the same author of Matthew, Mark, Luke, and Acts

But not by John the Evangelist.

Linguistic Difficulties:

"The writer seems on the surface to be unacquainted with the elementary laws of concord. He places nominatives in opposition to other cases, irregularly uses participles, constructs broken sentences, adds unnecessary pronouns, mixes up genders, numbers and cases and introduces several unusual constructions. That the grammatical usages of this book differ from those of the Gospel would seem to be demonstrated beyond doubt. But the real problem is whether one mind could adopt these different usages."

Donald Guthrie, Introduction to the New Testament

Regarding the linguistic problem, it would seem virtually impossible for the same mind to have composed both the Gospel and the Apocalypse within a few years of each other. It is not just the linguistic difference, but also the difference in the use of scripture.

Mark

My mistake.

Mark uses Ἱεροσόλυμα nine times; Ἰερουσαλήμ, once.


:)
#14844015
ingliz wrote:A two-edged sword.

You will look very silly dismissing the Petrine tradition if you embrace the Johannine.

In the case of Peter, there is one tradition that says Peter was in Rome 25 years and another that says only one year. Very inconsistent and we know the 25 years can't be true.

In the case of John the apostle writing Revelation, there is only one consistent tradition to that fact.
ingliz wrote:Dionysius calls it "barbarous".

That is his opinion, others had the opposite opinion.

ingliz wrote:Papias of Hierapolis clearly states that there were two persons by the name of John in the early church: one the apostle, and another an elder at Ephesus, who received the visions on Patmos.

Ephesus is one of the seven churches that John writes to in Revelation. There is nothing that keeps him from being called "The Elder" or a prophet. It is very possible that the Apostle John and John the Elder are the same person. The apostle John even refers to himself as "The Elder" in his third letter.

The Elder,
To the beloved Gaius, whom I love in truth:

(3 John 1 (NKJV)

The Apostle Peter also refers to himself as a fellow elder.

To the elders among you, I appeal as a fellow elder and a witness of Christ’s sufferings who also will share in the glory to be revealed:
(1 Peter 5:1 NIV)

ingliz wrote:If, then, any one came, who had been a follower of the elders, I questioned him in regard to the words of the elders— what Andrew or what Peter said, or what was said by Philip, or by Thomas, or by James, or by John, or by Matthew, or by any other of the disciples of the Lord, and what things Aristion and the presbyter John, the disciples of the Lord, say. For I did not think that what was to be gotten from the books would profit me as much as what came from the living and abiding voice.

Here you have Papias of Hierapolis even referring to all the disciples, including John, as elders.
ingliz wrote: It is worth while observing here that the name John is twice enumerated by him. The first one he mentions in connection with Peter and James and Matthew and the rest of the apostles, clearly meaning the evangelist; but the other John he mentions after an interval, and places him among others outside of the number of the apostles, putting Aristion before him, and he distinctly calls him a presbyter.

This shows that the statement of those is true, who say that there were two persons in Asia that bore the same name."

Eusebius, Eccl. Hist. III xxxix

There could be, but probably not likely in this case. The presbyter John does seem to be a different John, but the Greek word translated "presbyter" can also be translated "elder" and some translate what Eusebius wrote as mentioning the same John twice, first in a list of apostles ("what Andrew or Peter said, or what was said by Philip, or by Thomas, or by James, or by John, or by Matthew, or by any other of the Lord's disciples"), and then in a list of witnesses who are still alive ("which things Aristion and the presbyter John, the disciples of the Lord, say. For I imagined that what was to be got from books was not so profitable to me as what came from the living and abiding voice").

ingliz wrote:The trinitarian emphases of the Seer of Patmos are quite different than those of the evangelist. God is Creator, Christ is a warrior, and the Spirit is not one, but seven (Rev. 1:4).

Linguistic Difficulties:

"The writer seems on the surface to be unacquainted with the elementary laws of concord. He places nominatives in opposition to other cases, irregularly uses participles, constructs broken sentences, adds unnecessary pronouns, mixes up genders, numbers and cases and introduces several unusual constructions. That the grammatical usages of this book differ from those of the Gospel would seem to be demonstrated beyond doubt. But the real problem is whether one mind could adopt these different usages."

Donald Guthrie, Introduction to the New Testament

Regarding the linguistic problem, it would seem virtually impossible for the same mind to have composed both the Gospel and the Apocalypse within a few years of each other. It is not just the linguistic difference, but also the difference in the use of scripture.

The number 7:
From the first page of the Bible it is clear that the number seven stands for the completed and perfect. When God rested on the seventh day, the week was established.

It is no coincidence that the first sentence in the Hebrew Bible contains seven words, that the second sentence contains 2 x 7 words and that the first paragraph contains 3 x 7 words.

As can be expected the number seven is common in Revelation: Seven letters to seven churches, seven spirits, seven lamp stands, seven stars, seven angels, seven seals, seven thunders, seven trumpets, etc.

When the Israelites were told to march round Jericho for seven days and seven times on the seventh days, it also refers to what is complete.

It is interesting that seven is the sum of three (divine) and four (human). When the divine and human is united in the right way, the perfect and complete results.

http://www.academia.edu/1040939/Number_ ... _the_Bible

I don't see any theological or linguistic difficulties and neither do most other scholars of the New Testament if they keep in mind that John was in the spirit and being shown a prophetic revelation from Jesus in a vision which he was instructed to write down.
ingliz wrote:My mistake.

Mark uses Ἱεροσόλυμα nine times; Ἰερουσαλήμ, once.
:)

The Apostle John does use both spellings, just in separate books.
#14844030
Hindsite wrote:and we know the 25 years can't be true.

We do not.

In the case of John the apostle writing Revelation, there is only one consistent tradition to that fact.

Wrong again.

A Syriac martyrology drawn up at Edessa commemorates 'John and James the apostles in Jerusalem' on 27 December.

The Calendar of Carthage has a similar entry.

Philip of Side gives the following quotation: 'Papias in his second book says John the Divine and James his brother were killed by Jews.'

Georgius Hamartolos, a similar reference: 'For Papias, the bishop of Hierapolis, who had seen him with his own eyes, claims in the second book of the Sayings of the Lord that he was killed by the Jews, thus clearly fulfilling, together with his brother, Christ’s prophecy concerning them and their own confession and agreement about this.' Followed by a reference to Christ’s prophecy in Mark 10:35-39 that the sons of Zebedee will share the same fate as their Lord.

For when the Lord said to them, "Are you able to drink the cup that I drink?" and they eagerly assented and agreed, he said: "You will drink my cup and will be baptized with the baptism with which I am baptized." And this is to be expected, for it is impossible for God to lie. Moreover the encyclopedic Origen also affirms in his interpretation of the Gospel According to Matthew that John was martyred, indicating that he had learned this from the successors of the apostles.

George the Sinner, Chronicle

Source: C. K. Barrett. The Gospel According to St. John: An Introduction with Commentary and Notes on the Greek Text

"presbyter" can also be translated "elder"

Straws again.

I don't see any theological... difficulties

Seven Holy Ghosts?

I don't see

Already <-----------------------------------------------------------------> Not yet

The Fourth Gospel embraces a realized eschatology; Revelation is adamant, Judgement is to come. It would be difficult to find two more extreme eschatological perspectives in the canon.

The Apostle John does use both spellings, just in separate books.

Sillier and sillier.


:)
Last edited by ingliz on 16 Sep 2017 11:47, edited 4 times in total.
#14844034
How is this thread about spiritality? I just see rants and bickering, which is not what spirituality is about. I think at least one person in this threads needs to relearn the meaning of spirituality. And finger pointing is not part of spirituality, I think. ;)

You clearly haven't read many of the classics of the Church Fathers, MT. Lol. ;)

Seriously though, this ranting and bickering is theology. That's how it's done, and how it's always been done. Just be grateful they aren't pulling out thumbscrews and racks, or tying people to wooden stakes and setting fore to them. Hindsite and ingliz are being relatively polite and restrained in their disputation, by historical standards. :)
#14844060
Potemkin wrote:You clearly haven't read many of the classics of the Church Fathers, MT. Lol. ;)

Seriously though, this ranting and bickering is theology. That's how it's done, and how it's always been done. Just be grateful they aren't pulling out thumbscrews and racks, or tying people to wooden stakes and setting fore to them. Hindsite and ingliz are being relatively polite and restrained in their disputation, by historical standards. :)


In the good old days we didn't debate with Protestants, we sent them to God so he could explain their folly.

Image

Off with their heads!
#14844096
ingliz wrote:We do not.

Christians, like me, know.

But if our gospel be hid, it is hid to them that are lost: In whom the god of this world hath blinded the minds of them which believe not, lest the light of the glorious gospel of Christ, who is the image of God, should shine unto them.
2 Corinthians 4:3-4 KJV)

ingliz wrote:Wrong again.

You write about speculation. However, one can also speculate on the following:

Jesus said this to indicate the kind of death by which Peter would glorify God. After He had said this, He told him, “Follow Me.” Peter turned and saw the disciple whom Jesus loved following them. He was the one who had leaned back against Jesus at the supper to ask, “Lord, who is going to betray You?” When Peter saw him, he asked, “Lord, what about him?”

Jesus answered, “If I want him to remain until I return, what is that to you? You follow Me!” Because of this, the rumor spread among the brothers that this disciple would not die. However, Jesus did not say that he would not die, but only, “If I want him to remain until I return, what is that to you?”

(John 21:20-23)

ingliz wrote:Straws again.

No straws, just facts:

1 Peter 5:5 Strong's 4850 - from 4862 and 4245; a co-presbyter: - presbyter, also an elder.
2 John 1 Strong's 4245 - a senior; "presbyter": - elder (-est), old.
3 John 1 Strong's 4245 - a senior; "presbyter": - elder (-est), old.

ingliz wrote:Seven Holy Ghosts?

As I said before, the word "seven" figuratively represents holiness or perfection or completion and may or may not indicate a specific number. Don't forget that Revelation is prophecy and the "seven" Spirits before his throne may represent spiritual perfection associated with the throne of God because John is also spoken of as being in the Spirit on the Lord's day (rev. 1:10). Then we have this:

The mystery of the seven stars which thou sawest in my right hand, and the seven golden candlesticks. The seven stars are the angels of the seven churches: and the seven candlesticks which thou sawest are the seven churches.
(Revelation 1:20 KJV)

He that hath an ear, let him hear what the Spirit saith unto the churches; To him that overcometh will I give to eat of the tree of life, which is in the midst of the paradise of God. And unto the angel of the church in Smyrna write; These things saith the first and the last, which was dead, and is alive;
(Revelation 2:7-8 KJV)

I don't believe "the Spirit" speaking to each of the "seven" churches is made up of different Spirits, but the same Spirit with "seven different messages", one for each of the "seven" churches.

Endeavouring to keep the unity of the Spirit in the bond of peace. There is one body, and one Spirit, even as ye are called in one hope of your calling; One Lord, one faith, one baptism, One God and Father of all, who is above all, and through all, and in you all.
(Ephesians 4:3-6 KJV)

ingliz wrote:Already <-----------------------------------------------------------------> Not yet

The Fourth Gospel embraces a realized eschatology; Revelation is adamant, Judgement is to come. It would be difficult to find two more extreme eschatological perspectives in the canon.

Unfounded speculation again.

ingliz wrote:Sillier and sillier.
:)

Truth is not silly to me. Praise the Lord. HalleluYah.
#14844123
Hindsite wrote:Christians, like me, know.

No.

You say you know; I say you believe you know, there is a difference.

Sadly, your beliefs are most often mistaken.

Aristion

Trivia.

A rare Armenian manuscript of the Gospels copied in the year 986 AD attributes the Longer Ending of the Gospel of Mark, chapter 16, verses 9-20, to "Presbyter Aristion,'' Papias's other living witness.

No straws, just facts

With Papias (about 140, or as Harnack would have it 145-160 AD), your argument fails.

Your problem:

Aristion and presbyter John are alive; the apostle is dead.

Note the tenses used:

what Andrew or what Peter said, or what was said by Philip, or by Thomas, or by James, or by John, or by Matthew

what things Aristion and the presbyter John, the disciples of the Lord, say

And before you get all in a tizz about "disciples of the Lord" read Acts 9:1-2.

"And Saul, yet breathing out threatenings and slaughter against the disciples of the Lord, went unto the high priest, And desired of him letters to Damascus to the synagogues, that if he found any of this way, whether they were men or women, he might bring them bound unto Jerusalem."

By early tradition

The Gnostic Heracleon confirms the martyrdom of John the apostle, as does Aphrahat, Bishop of the monastery of Mar Mattai.

"Great and excellent is the martyrdom of Jesus. He surpassed in affliction and in confession all who were before or after. And after Him was the faithful martyr Stephen whom the Jews stoned. Simon (Peter) also and Paul were perfect martyrs. And James and John walked in the footsteps of their Master Christ. Also (others) of the apostles thereafter in various places confessed and proved true martyrs."

Aphrahat, Demonstration 21 (Of Persecution)


:)
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