Again, has the West been experiencing rising levels of inequality in the last 50 years?
If so, then how has the dominant classes contrived to control any possible reaction from those who are being progressively excluded? Is it conceivably the case that they might be using moral politics to politically marginalise their potential opponents, that is the white male worker? Or is it simply coincidence that Political correctness latches on to any cause that legitimated the marginalisation of that demographic?
A robber was once asked why he robbed banks. He answered “that is where the money is”. Well, white male workers were where the power was. Why does PC target that group? That’s where the power must be taken from.
Power rests in the hands of rich business scum who have not worked a day in their lives.
While male workers are in the same place other workers are, doing 12 hour shifts in factories or freezing their bollocks off on a scaffold in November. The only power they have is that which they exercise collectivity through unions and since no one joins unions any more they have basically no power.
Rich people are targeting the while male working class as a way of redirecting minority worker's anger (and creating an inevitable equivalent anger in the attacked white workforce) thus turning the working class against one another to stop them ever uniting and doing anything about the true enemy, the people who have never worked a day in their lives, their bosses and landlords and aristocrats of all colours.
Some people are nobody's enemies but their own.
"The IDF is retarded" - Zionist Nationalist