[Puffer Fish]

Which property is legitimate? Rothbard follows Locke’s theory. Man becomes rightfully the owner of the product of his labour which is simply an extension of his self. And unowned land and natural resources become the legitimate property of the pioneer, the homesteader who is the first to use them

The semantics are important, and the question is what property, precisely, actually comprises "the product of one's labour"?

If I work for money, and then use that money to buy a human slave, for instance, does that slave represent "a product of my labour?"

You can see the problem with this type of thinking.

I think most of us can accept that something like a painting represents almost entirely the product value of human labor.

But it can be less obvious for other things, like a coal mine.

Natural derived value can be considered.

And also, within Marxian economic perspective, the issue of the value of "capital" can complicate things.

That is when the capital may represent the product of human labor, but it is in such a way where it is not practically possible for a group of individuals to organise their labour to produce the capital, rather with the ownership and most of the economic benefit going to others.