Difference between men and women is 3.14159 . . . - Politics Forum.org | PoFo

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#15056036
Pi (π) is both the sixteenth letter of the Greek alphabet and the ratio of the circumference of a circle to its diameter. The difference between what is round and what is straight has no exact value. The calculation of pi begins at 3.14159 and stretches indefinitely.

Pi may provide a link between mathematics and sexuality. Since the phallic straight line (diameter) is symbolic of the male and the circle (circumference) represents the female, one might conclude that pi signifies the unsolvable and infinite differences between men and women. The sexes will never be able to "figure" each other out. Pi is an irrational number because it cannot be expressed as a fraction with integers in both the numerator and denominator. Similarly, men and women will do irrational things to maintain a relationship.

However, one can also see a positive aspect in the ratio: As the circumference increases, so does the diameter, and vice versa. Thus, whatever expands the horizons of the woman also expands the opportunities for the man.

The ancient Egyptians also found sex in numbers and geometry, as noted by Plutarch in Moralia Vol. 5. In a triangle that can be measured as three by four by five units, the erect side (3) was likened to the male, the base line (4) to the female and the hypotenuse (5) to the child of both.
#15056044
Women are considered to think less rational and to use circular reasoning while men are considered to be more straightforward, generally speaking.


This is an advantage women have because they are not constantly in danger of having their ass handed to them because some other man did not "get it".

I wonder what others will say


That women are smarter than men. Their IQ scores do not support this but every man knows it is true; otherwise we would not be so flustered and childlike around them.
#15056048
MistyTiger wrote:That is an interesting statement to make. Hmmm.

Women are considered to think less rational and to use circular reasoning while men are considered to be more straightforward, generally speaking.

I wonder what others will say.

IT was a circular reason that sought to naturalize women's subordinace, and others for that matter.
The discrimination that say barred women from education and its consequence was used as the basis for barring women from education. A woman without education lacks the consequences of education but such consequences were naturalized as women's inability to learn since they can't learn they shouldn't be afforded an education.

The OP seems nonsensical to me in regards that it's not even a matter of metaphor or analogy but talking about an entirely different subject than that of men and women except in a vague association.
https://www.marxists.org/archive/vygotsky/works/comment/vygotsk1.htm
And so it should be! Hegel advises that: “... this progress in knowing is not something provisional, or problematical and hypothetical; it must be determined by the nature of the subject matter itself and its content”.
#15056058
Wellsy wrote:IT was a circular reason that sought to naturalize women's subordinace, and others for that matter.
The discrimination that say barred women from education and its consequence was used as the basis for barring women from education. A woman without education lacks the consequences of education but such consequences were naturalized as women's inability to learn since they can't learn they shouldn't be afforded an education.

Women's subordination was grounded in their low ability within the Agrarian economy, both heavy plough agriculture and animal herding. This is why women's status fell in the agrarian era compared with the preceding horticultural and hunter-gatherer economies. This is why the question of women's status appears at the beginning of the industrial revolution. As the industrial revolution has advanced and men's productive advantage for heavy labour has attenuated, the pressure for equality has naturally increased.

In the pathetic fantasy world of our hegemonic Cultural Marxist culture women have rights because they fought for them. In reality there was no fighting and precious little direct action of any substance.
#15056065
Rich wrote:Women's subordination was grounded in their low ability within the Agrarian economy, both heavy plough agriculture and animal herding. This is why women's status fell in the agrarian era compared with the preceding horticultural and hunter-gatherer economies. This is why the question of women's status appears at the beginning of the industrial revolution. As the industrial revolution has advanced and men's productive advantage for heavy labour has attenuated, the pressure for equality has naturally increased.

In the pathetic fantasy world of our hegemonic Cultural Marxist culture women have rights because they fought for them. In reality there was no fighting and precious little direct action of any substance.

I agree the industrial revolution precipitates womens liberation but the idea that everything fell into their lap and without struggle is so one sided as to be entirely wrong to the necessary role of people to struggle even as the economic circumstances made the possibility of their struggle relizable. One couldnt make sense of say the struggle for universal suffrage without the participation of people unless one adopts an antihumanist structuralism.

It ultimately takes people to actualize something even if larger forces set the conditions but even such history is a product of human activity and not a causal necessity.
#15056121
Wellsy wrote:One couldnt make sense of say the struggle for universal suffrage without the participation of people unless one adopts an antihumanist structuralism.

Universal male suffrage and votes for women are completely different. Yes of course we should remember our struggle for universal male suffrage against vile reactionaries like William Wilberforce. However even with male suffrage we must remember how even in the French revolution the far left turned against universal male suffrage.
#15056124
Robert Urbanek wrote:
Pi (π) is both the sixteenth letter of the Greek alphabet and the ratio of the circumference of a circle to its diameter. The difference between what is round and what is straight has no exact value. The calculation of pi begins at 3.14159 and stretches indefinitely.

Pi may provide a link between mathematics and sexuality. Since the phallic straight line (diameter) is symbolic of the male and the circle (circumference) represents the female, one might conclude that pi signifies the unsolvable and infinite differences between men and women. The sexes will never be able to "figure" each other out. Pi is an irrational number because it cannot be expressed as a fraction with integers in both the numerator and denominator. Similarly, men and women will do irrational things to maintain a relationship.

However, one can also see a positive aspect in the ratio: As the circumference increases, so does the diameter, and vice versa. Thus, whatever expands the horizons of the woman also expands the opportunities for the man.

The ancient Egyptians also found sex in numbers and geometry, as noted by Plutarch in Moralia Vol. 5. In a triangle that can be measured as three by four by five units, the erect side (3) was likened to the male, the base line (4) to the female and the hypotenuse (5) to the child of both.



That doesn't actually mean anything.
#15056151
Rich wrote:Universal male suffrage and votes for women are completely different. Yes of course we should remember our struggle for universal male suffrage against vile reactionaries like William Wilberforce. However even with male suffrage we must remember how even in the French revolution the far left turned against universal male suffrage.

Im not sure I follow in that I don’t think the vote was ever purely given from above as much as it was struggled for from below. Majority vote itself was the result of the capitalist class being outsiders who consolidated themselves into organizations as equals. So there is always struggle.
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