- 11 Jul 2019 08:42
#15017472
No. From a previous post:
Britain would have just paid more and they did when cotton from the US became unavailable. As I said, at most it might have caused a slowing down of economic development for some time.
One of your problems is that you think history lessons from an introductory video by Khan Academy provide insight into this. Since the economic data had you so stumped, it's clear that this was new information for you and that you are quite unfamiliar with many aspects of the industrial revolution and how/why it happened. By continuing to just repeat previous assertions despite the evidence to the contrary I have presented, you are doubling down on what looks like historical and economic illiteracy.
Politics_Observer wrote:Come on Kaiserschmarrn! The industrial revolution needed cheap cotton to start out. The cotton gin and slave labor enabled the cheap cotton the British and the rich white boys running the text-mills needed up in New England.
No. From a previous post:
Eltis, Engerman, 2000, page 16 wrote:Slave-produced raw materials generally formed a small share of the price of a finished good, in this case textiles. After 1790 the British exported their Industrial Revolution on the back of more efficient manufacturing techniques which allowed them to undercut foreign competition. The geographical location of the market, or indeed whether that market was supported by rising profits from intensive exploitation of slave labor (or indeed was expanding at all) was of no great significance.
Britain would have just paid more and they did when cotton from the US became unavailable. As I said, at most it might have caused a slowing down of economic development for some time.
Politics_Observer wrote:They also employed women in those mills because they wouldn't have to pay them as much as a man. That translates over to higher profits for them and cheaper prices that everybody else wanted when they bought products made from those textile mills. The Brits weren't stupid. They wanted to buy their cotton as cheap as they could get it. They didn't care if the cotton was produced by the cotton gin and slave labor. They just wanted to get as much as they could for as cheap of a price they could. That meant black folks working for free and women getting paid less than men for the same work. Everybody knows, the rich has been screwing over the poor since the dawn of time. Always has been and always will be:
One of your problems is that you think history lessons from an introductory video by Khan Academy provide insight into this. Since the economic data had you so stumped, it's clear that this was new information for you and that you are quite unfamiliar with many aspects of the industrial revolution and how/why it happened. By continuing to just repeat previous assertions despite the evidence to the contrary I have presented, you are doubling down on what looks like historical and economic illiteracy.
"Science is the belief in the ignorance of experts"
Richard Feynman
Richard Feynman