Pants-of-dog wrote:Please show that the Nazi genocide of Jews was illegal at the time under international humanitarian law.
Or, concede that laws can be, and often are, unjust or unable to protect people from oppression.
It was illegal to, for example, carry out mass executions of civilians in occupied territories even before WWII. So it was to attack undefended towns, cities, homes, etc.
Are you saying Nazi Germany did not do any of these in WWII during the Holocaust?
Genocide per se was not codified, and it was legal to do things like the above in your own territory, but that doesn't mean there were no protections of civilians at all or that the Holocaust did not feature violations of those protections. Do you understand the difference?
Deutschmania wrote:Look , @wat0n , and @Pants-of-dog , I myself was initially incredulous at the claim that international law in respects to individual human rights hadn't existed prior to the aftermath of World War II , and the Holocaust . So I looked it up , and found that Pants-of-dog is correct . Here are two sources to prove the point , the first from the U.S. Holocaust Memorial Museum even , and the second from the National World War 2 Museum .
https://www.ushmm.org/m/pdfs/Publication_OP_2003-10-28.pdf
https://www.nationalww2museum.org/war/articles/crimes-against-humanity-international-law
As the both articles mention, there were still protections of civilians when they were under foreign occupation. This was not based on their individual rights, of course, but on the interest of states to regulate war at least somewhat.
Mass executions of civilians like those the Nazis committed in the USSR (for instance) were already war crimes even under the existing international law. That's the case regardless of whether this was part of genocide or not, the mass executions were illegal per se. Get it?