- 12 Apr 2009 09:22
#1867460
I guess I'm looking to hear more from you theistic Hebrew Jews, and again I ask this from curiosity and because it randomly crossed my mind.
To my understanding, "Moses" was not so much a name as a suffix in ancient Egypt - specifically, "-mose" meaning "son of", sometimes attached to a person's name (I suppose as a patronymic as in Russian).
The logical process is, of course, being orphaned and adopted, he dropped the Egyptian name when g*d began leading him.
But why keep "Moses"? I suppose it could be keeping the "son of" as in "son of g*d"...
But looking at the Exodus from a secular analytical viewpoint, perhaps the use of "son of" would fit into the metaphorical view (that Exodus was mostly metaphoric, not historic) would mean that the tribe of Israel would be the son of g*d... as I understand that in ancient Israel, it was understood/expressed that all (I suppose theistic) men were "sons of g*d" (something I heard questioning Jesus's declaration).
As such, the travel from Israel through the desert to the land of Israel would be, metaphorically, the path of those who follow g*d to holiness...? Egypt being the repression or state of static moral inertia, the 40 years being the struggle throguh life to maintain morality, the pillar and smoke being g*d's commandments (considering that is where it leads) guiding, and Israel being, basically, enlightenment (as Christians would say, glory next to the seat of God after Judgment)...?
This is a very simplistic understanding of what I mean, and I don't know much about the Hebrew translations, which is why I'm posting this. Is this an interpretation completely ridiculous and off-base, or (even if heretical) a possible understanding of the story?
It just seems strange that he kept going by "Moses".
To my understanding, "Moses" was not so much a name as a suffix in ancient Egypt - specifically, "-mose" meaning "son of", sometimes attached to a person's name (I suppose as a patronymic as in Russian).
The logical process is, of course, being orphaned and adopted, he dropped the Egyptian name when g*d began leading him.
But why keep "Moses"? I suppose it could be keeping the "son of" as in "son of g*d"...
But looking at the Exodus from a secular analytical viewpoint, perhaps the use of "son of" would fit into the metaphorical view (that Exodus was mostly metaphoric, not historic) would mean that the tribe of Israel would be the son of g*d... as I understand that in ancient Israel, it was understood/expressed that all (I suppose theistic) men were "sons of g*d" (something I heard questioning Jesus's declaration).
As such, the travel from Israel through the desert to the land of Israel would be, metaphorically, the path of those who follow g*d to holiness...? Egypt being the repression or state of static moral inertia, the 40 years being the struggle throguh life to maintain morality, the pillar and smoke being g*d's commandments (considering that is where it leads) guiding, and Israel being, basically, enlightenment (as Christians would say, glory next to the seat of God after Judgment)...?
This is a very simplistic understanding of what I mean, and I don't know much about the Hebrew translations, which is why I'm posting this. Is this an interpretation completely ridiculous and off-base, or (even if heretical) a possible understanding of the story?
It just seems strange that he kept going by "Moses".
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